Master the OB NCLEX Questions 2023: Practice Tests & Rationales
Master the OB NCLEX Questions: Practice Tests and Rationales
1)Dystocia is expected in
a. vertex presentation
b. Cephalic presentation
c. Normal labor
d. breech presentation
Click for Answer 1
2) Another name for the Central Separation of the Placenta
a. Schultz method
b. Mathews – Duncan method
c. Elements method
d. a & c options
Click for Answer 2
3)Mathews – Duncan method is
a. Marginal…
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Date: 8/2/23
Many people are not wise enough to count life’s blessings. They keep focusing instead on what the world has denied them.
God knows where does my confidence go at times. If only I maintained it during exams
Read Reproductive Health and Evolution for Bio
Did a few mcqs from Kinematics 1D and EMW
For Chem, I revised Thermo, Equilib and Alcohol Phenol Ether plus did mcqs
Had my dance class too and learnt a bit more for the new pallavi. I had seen the steps beforehand so I was able to learn it faster
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BIOLOGY PRACTICE MCQs for NEET 2024 || Reproductive Health || by Shiksha...
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Best Strategy To Crack NEET 2023 in First Attempt
A) Concrete Planning of the NEET syllabus to complete in time
At times simply hard work for NEET 2023 preparation will not bring the desired result instead meticulous work with a proper study plan for NEET 2023 brings better results. In order to crack NEET 2023 exam, having a strategic study planning of the syllabus is a must for every medical aspirant.
A concrete plan before appearing for the exam is mandatory. Each aspirant has his/her area of preferences of studies therefore the preparation of NEET 2023 study plan should be designed accordingly. Aspirants are advised to create a study map or flow chart of subjects designed by experts.
Method to study for NEET 2023
1) Start with Biology and one other subject simultaneously.
2) Read NCERT books line by line.
3) Tips for Biology, learn diagrams thoroughly to understand a topic.
4) Tips for Physics, solve as many questions as you can.
5) Tips for Chemistry, learn diagrams and chemical equations in detail.
=3
Biomolecules = 3
Cell Cycle and cell Division = 7
Photosynthesis in higher plants = 4
Plant growth and development
Breathing and exchange of Gases = 3
Body fluids and Circulation = 3
Locomotion and movement = 4
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants = 3
Human Reproduction = 3
Reproductive Health = 3
Molecular basis of inheritance = 10
Human health and Disease = 3
Strategies for enhancement in food production = 3
Biotechnology principles and process = 6
Biotechnology and its applications = 6
Organisms and populations = 4
Ecosystem = 3
Serial No. Time Subject
1 5:00 am – 9:00 am Physics
2 9:00 am – 10:00 am Breakfast
3 10:00 am – 12:00 pm Zoology
4 12:00 pm – 12:30 pm Relaxation Break
5 12:30 pm – 2:00 pm Chemistry
6 2 pm – 2:30 pm Lunch
7 2:30 pm – 4:30 pm Botany
8 4:30 pm – 5:00 pm Relaxation Break
9 5:00 pm – 7:00 pm Chemistry
10 7:00 pm – 8:00 pm Botany Revision
11 8:00 pm – 8:30 pm Dinner
12 8:30 pm – 11:00 pm Solving Sample paper
neet 2023 notes
confidence. Candidates need to be sincere in attending all classes and be disciplined in completion of all assignments on time.
E) Clarification and Attempt of Mock assignments NEET 2023
Clarification of simple to simplest doubts on time to time needed from faculty is mandatory. NEET 2023 aspirants need to attempt all mock tests online or offline in order to analyse mistakes, improve performance and time management skills for MCQ’s. Mock solving answers in OMR sheets as many as possible will increasing the optimum efficiency for the candidates thus enabling them to finish the final NEET examination in time.
If you thinking about medical admission in abroad then go for MBBS in Bangladesh.
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CLASS-12 CHAP 4 MCQs REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH WITH SOLUTION; SEXUALLY TRANSMI...
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28/4/22
Hola !
I hope you all are doing well !
There 79 days left for NEET 2022 and I hope you guys have faith in yourselves , let your preparation be on your mind guys and don't leave any room for self doubt !
I have changed my schedule , I wake up early in the morning now .
I completed analysis of bio and phy of my mock test ,Dual Nature of light , part of coordination compounds and solved MCQs on Reproductive health today .
Gonna sleep now.
Adios
🙏
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What Are The Options After MBBS Study
Are you about to complete your MBBS or have you already completed the MBBS?? Are you thinking about what to do after MBBS?? Are you confused between the options, whether to study further or practice medicine?? Be careful while choosing your future because a lot of people waste their time in confusion what to do further. We have the best option after MBBS. Medical PG In Germany is the best option after MBBS..
There are several options available after the MBBS. Some people have the wrong perception that there is no option after MBBS but just to teach or practice clinical. Today medical field is developed so advance that it has a wide range of best options after MBBS and job options.
If you are from one of those who are looking for further Best Options after MBBS, then you are at right place. Here are the list of courses which you can choose according to your interest after MBBS.
Post Graduation
MS/MD Program
MS/MD program is most common after MBBS. You have the option of doing MS/MD in India or from abroad. The entrance exam of post graduation in medicine program is very tough and most of the people fail to get seats in the government colleges.
The degree in general surgery is called MS and degree in General medicine is called MD. The duration of MS/MD degree is 3 years, but the diploma in MS/MD is about two years. If you decided to study MS/MD degree in abroad, then you have to pass a special kind of Entrance exam like PGMEE every year. In the United State of America, you have to appear in USMLE (United State Medical Licensing Examination) for Medical PG in Germany programs.
Here are the list of subjects which you can choose to do specialization in MD courses after MBBS. You can choose any one from the following courses.
Aerospace Medicine
Anatomy
Anesthesia
Forensic Medicine
General Surgery
Dermatology
Venereology and Leprosy
Biochemistry
Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Orthopedics
Diploma of National Board (DNB)
It is the postgraduate diploma and known as MCI (Medical Council In India). There are some advantages and also disadvantages of this course. The advantage of this diploma is to fulfill your dream of becoming a specialist. The advantage of this diploma is that it is difficult to clear. The second disadvantage of this diploma is to get little preference because most of the hospitals prefer MD/MS degree over DNB.
Combined Medical Services (CMS)
The CMS test is conducted by UPSC to recruit the MBBS doctors in other fields like railway as medical officers. If you pass the test through UPSC, you have the chance to get a government job. This is the best option for those who want to do permanent job.
MBA (Master of Business Administration)
In many hospitals and pharmaceutical companies, there is a demand for doctors with MBA degree. That is why many colleges are offering this diploma now. MBA after MBBS gives you opportunities to new and exciting paths. If you want to do MBA after your MBBS then here is the list of some specific program that you can study after the planning.
MBA in Health Care Management
MBA in Healthcare
MBA in Hospital Administrator
MBA in both Hospital and Health care management
When you will complete your MBA degree after MBBS then you can get a chance to do job in following departments.
Hospital Administrator
Health Information Manager
Health care licenses’ consultant
Medical Manager
Health care consultant
Medical Director
Pharmaceutical Project Manager
Research
There are several opportunities for you to carry on research field. The first option is to get 3 year degree program of MS/MD and then take admission for Ph.D so you can continue your research during Ph.D.
The other option is to get admission into those universities or college who offer direct research program based on merit. There are many prominent institutes who offer direct research programs like NIM—HANS (national institute of mental health and neuroscience).
You can continue your research for your bright future and you can choose any one course from 45 PhD courses. Keep one thing remember that if you are going in the research field, then you have enthusiasm and passion for research. If you don’t have a passion for research, you will find it boring. The future is bright in research, but depends on your working potential in this field because salary and promotion depend on hard work.
Doctorate Degree in Medical Neuroscience
The duration of this degree is 3 to 5 years and many institutes offer fellowship. The medical graduate with 55% marks are eligible for this. The other eligibility criteria is to have a 1 year internship certificate from a reputed institute or its equivalent or the candidate should be registered with the state medical council.
With external fellowship, following Doctorate Programs are offered by NIMHANS.
D in Neuro Microbiology
D in Biophysics
D in Neurophysiology
D in Neurovirology
D in Psychiatry
D in Neurology
D in Psychopharmacology
DM in Neurology
Ch. in Neurosurgery
Hospital Management
You can get a degree of Hospital Administration (MHA) after your MBBS. This degree will lead you towards a fast-developing field. Demands are always high and increasing day by day for a professional Hospital Administrator. Your degree will be highly valued in following companies.
Health Insurance Companies
Health care centers
Mental health organizations
National and international healthcare management
Laboratories
Clinic
Government hospitals
Private hospitals
Medical colleges and universities
Rehabilitation centers
Public Health departments
Hospital consulting firms
Medical software companies
Nursing homes
Foreign Education
You need to pass the following tests in order to get admission in The United State and United Kingdom.
PLAB (Professional and Linguistic Assessment Board) for United Kingdom (UK)
PLAB test is taken from the doctors to ensure that the doctors are qualified for doing a job or study in the United Kingdom. This test is taken to check the right skills and knowledge in order to carry on practice medicine in the UK.
This test consists of two parts and you need to pass the both parts to practice medicine. Part 1 includes multiple choice question (MCQs) that are 180 in number and 3 hours time is given to solve this part.
The second part of this test consists of objective based clinical exam. This test is made up of 18 different situations that doctors normally face during the day. Eight minutes are given for 1 situation. Once you pass the both tests, you can apply for a medical license to practice in the UK.
USMLE for US
USMLE stands for United State Medical Licensing Examination and it is the most important option if you want to settle yourself in the US. However, it is not easy to pass the test. In fact, many candidates, including many Indians failed in this test after several attempts. This test includes 3 parts and also the costs are too high to follow these procedures.
But if you are lucky and intelligent enough to pass the test, then your bright future is waiting in US for you.
M.Tech in Biomedical Engineering and Biological Sciences
If the MBBS graduates do not further want to attend the patients and wanted to choose another option, then M.Tech in Biomedical Engineering and Biological Sciences is the best option for them. It is a 2-year full-time postgraduate course.
The responsibilities of a biomedical engineer or scientist is to develop and improve medical machines. They can further design innovative ideas and machines to diagnose, operate and treatment of diseases and other health ailments.
Examples of innovations of biomedical scientist are prosthetics, artificial limbs, imaging machines and many more.
Masters in Medical Science and Technology (MMST)
The duration of this program is three years. It is a postgraduate medical professional degree course to give training of physician-scientist. The main purpose of this program is to make MBBS graduates capable of handling advanced technology in medical sciences.
The curriculum is designed with all the innovations, techniques, in-depth knowledge, information and activities to handle modern technology and medical equipment. This degree course has both theoretical and practical based curriculums.
Some disciplines of MSST are listed below:
Tissue Engineering
Biomaterials
Herbal Medicines
Medical Imaging and Image Analysis
Reproductive Health
Health care information management system
Telemedicine and Tele Surgery
Oncology
Rehabilitation Engineering
Instrumentations
The students must have an MBBS degree with 55% marks to take admission in this program. And after the completion of this course, you have the following career opportunities.
Senior Technician
Associate Scientist
Professor
Lecturer
Pharmacy Researcher
Doctor, Surgeon
Junior Research Fellow
Technical Consultant
Biological Scientist
Work with Primary Health Centers
It is basic and structural health unit of public services in most developing countries. It is also the option available for MBBS graduates after their degree. Most of the MBBS graduates get posting in many rural areas and practice there. The graduates who want to help people living in rural areas may choose this option after MBBS.
You don’t need to worry now because the medicine field is developing day by day and there are lots of options available after MBBS study. You don’t need to think about what to do after MBBS Study.
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Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.
Human Reproduction Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf
1. Which of…
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Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQ | NEET 2022
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So finally class 12 exams are over and here I am starting off with neet prep for 2023. Doing mcqs for reproductive health as it is an easy chapter. Also I started off with dance practice at 5.3am, so I feel refreshed
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BIOLOGY MCQ's for NEET 2024 || Reproductive Health || by Shiksha House
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SOLUTION OF MCQs OF REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH FOR NEET; reproductive health cl...
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300+ TOP PHYSICIAN Objective Questions and Answers
PHYSICIAN Multiple Choice Questions :-
1.Which Diagnosis and treating abnormalities, diseases, and disorders of the heart.
A. CORRECT: Cardiology
B. Urology
C. Nephrology
D. Radiology
2.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating tumors and cancer.
A. Gynecology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Oncology
D. Radiology
3.Which is Similiar to general practice in nature, but centering around the family unit.
A. Geriatrics
B. Pediatrics
C. CORRECT: Family Practice
D. Obstetrics
4.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic reactivity ?
A. CORRECT: Allergy
B. Urology
C. Radiology
D. Oncology
5.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive tract; strong emphasis on preventive measures.
A. Urology
B. Neurology
C. Oncology
D. CORRECT: Gynecology
6.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the central nervous system.
A. Nephrology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Neurology
D. Gynecology
7.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the ear, nose, and throat.
A. CORRECT: Otorhinolaryngology
B. Endocrinology
C. Radiology
D. Ophthalmology
8.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the kidney.
A. Oncology
B. Urology
C. CORRECT: Nephrology
D. Neurology
9.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with Roentgen rays (x-rays) and other forms of radiant energy.
A. Urology
B. Neurology
C. Cardiology
D. CORRECT: Radiology
10.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.
A. Radiology
B. Cardiology
C. Neurology
D. CORRECT: Dermatology
PHYSICIAN MCQs
11.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the stomach and intestines.
A. Nephrology
B. Dermatology
C. CORRECT: Gastroenterology
D. Gynecology
12.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating disorders and diseases of the bones, muscles, ligaments, and tendons and fractures of the bones.
A. Pediatrics
B. Geriatrics
C. CORRECT: Orthopedics
D. Obstetrics
13.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the eye.
A. CORRECT: Ophthalmology
B. Oncology
C. Radiology
D. Dermatology
14.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating pronounced manifestations of emotional problems or mental illness that may have an organic causative factor.
A. CORRECT: Psychiatry
B. Oncology
C. Pediatrics
D. Geriatrics
15.Providing direct care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, immediately is called_________?
A. Pediatrics
B. CORRECT: Obstetrics
C. Geriatrics
D. Orthopedics
16.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the internal organs.
A. Geriatrics
B. CORRECT: Internal Medicine
C. Pediatrics
D. Orthopedics
17.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the urinary system of females and genitourinary system of males.
A. CORRECT: Urology
B. Neurology
C. Oncology
D. Radiology
18.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of children; strong emphasis on preventive measures.
A. Psychiatry
B. Geriatrics
C. Obstetrics
D. CORRECT: Pediatrics
19.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion.
A. CORRECT: Endocrinology
B. Nephrology
C. Radiology
D. Oncology
20.Which of the following is used to Diagnosing and treating diseases, disorders, and problems associated with aging.?
A. CORRECT: Geriatrics
B. Dermatology
C. Obstetrics
D. Pediatrics
21.Which is a designation placed on a patient's medical record indicating that in the case of cessation of circulation and breathing, artificial resuscitation is not to be done?
A. Durable Power of Attorney
B. CORRECT: DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. Advanced Directives
D. Prognosis
22.withdrawing medical care from a patient without providing sufficient notice to the patient is called_______?
A. Agent
B. Consent
C. CORRECT: Abandonment
D. AIDS
Ans C:
23.What is called when a legal agreement that allows an agent or representative of the patient to act on behalf of the patient?
A. Advanced Directives
B. DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. CORRECT: Durable Power of Attorney
D. Parens Patiae Authority
24.What is the virus that causes the immune system to break down and can eventually result in the disease AIDS?
A. Privileged Communication
B. Advanced Directives
C. AMA (against medical advice)
D. CORRECT: HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)
25.What is the prediction for the cause of a disease?
A. CORRECT: Prognosis
B. Minor
C. Proxy
D. Consent
26.a person assigned by a court to stand in place of the parents and possess their legal rights and responsibilities toward the child is called_______?
A. CORRECT: In Loco Parentis
B. Implied Consent
C. Advanced Directives
D. Consent
27.What is the various methods by which a patient has the right to self-determination prior to a medical necessity; includes living wills, health care proxies, and durable power of attorney?
A. Abandonment
B. Living Will
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Advanced Directives
28.What occurs when the state takes responsibility from the parents for the care and custody of minors under thee age of 18?
A. CORRECT: Parens Patiae Authority
B. Durable Power of Attorney
C. In Loco Parentis
D. Proxy
29.What is the consent granted by a person after the patient has received knowledge and understanding of potential risks and benefits?
A. Consent
B. Advanced Directives
C. CORRECT: Informed (expressed) Consent
D. Implied Consent
30.a legal document in which a person states that life-sustaining treatments and nutritional support should not be used to prolong life; a type of advance directive is called________?
A. AIDS
B. Minor
C. Prognosis
D. CORRECT: Living Will
31.Which is an agreement that is made through inference by signs, inaction, or silence?
A. Consent
B. Abandonment
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Implied Consent
32.What is called when a non compliant patient leaves a hospital without physician's permission ?
A. Parens Patiae Authority
B. DNR (do not resuscitate)
C. Advanced Directives
D. CORRECT: AMA (against medical advice)
33.Who is a person authorized to act on behalf of a patient?
A. Consent
B. Minor
C. AIDS
D. CORRECT: Agent
34.What is a disease resulting in infections that occur as a result of exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus, which causes the immune system to break down?
A. Agent
B. Proxy
C. CORRECT: AIDS
D. Minor
35.A person who acts on behalf of another person?
A. AIDS
B. CORRECT: Proxy
C. Minor
D. Agent
Ans:B
36.What is the name of the act when a state statute allowing persons 18 years of age and of sound mind to make a gift of any or all body parts for purposes of organ transplantation or medical research?
A. Parens Patiae Authority
B. CORRECT: Uniform Analytical Gift Act
C. DNR (do not resuscitate)
D. Implied Consent
37.The voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person the permission to touch, examine, and perform a treatment is called_________?
A. Abandonment
B. CORRECT: Consent
C. AIDS
D. Agent
38.Which provides confidential information that has been told to a physician (or attorney) by the patient?
A. Advanced Directives
B. Implied Consent
C. In Loco Parentis
D. CORRECT: Privileged Communication
39. Who is mental health specialist?
A. oncologist
B. CORRECT: psychiatrist
C. podiatrist
D. pharmacist
40.who takes x-ray readings?
A. neurologist
B. CORRECT: radiologists
C. audiologist
D. oncologist
41.who is specialist in the male reproductive system?
A. neurologist
B. audiologist
C. oncologist
D. CORRECT: urologist
Ans:D
42.Who is specialist in the female reproductive system?
A. oncologist
B. neurologist
C. urologist
D. CORRECT: gynecologist
Ans:D
43.Who is specialist in baby and children's health?
A. CORRECT: pediatrician
B. pharmacist
C. podiatrist
D. obstetrician
Ans:A
44.who deals with heart and blood vessels?
A. audiologist
B. urologist
C. radiologists
D. CORRECT: cardiology
45.Who is the specialist in the nerves and the central nervous center?
A. oncologist
B. audiologist
C. urologist
D. CORRECT: neurologist
46.Who is licensed to do most patient care but must be overseen by a MD or OD.
A. CORRECT: PA
B. MD
C. GP
D. OD
47.Who is cancer specialist?
A. CORRECT: oncologist
B. gynecologist
C. audiologist
D. urologist
48.who is specialist in digestive system, intestines, and colon?
A. neurologist
B. gynecologist
C. CORRECT: gastroenterologist
D. Anesthesiologist
49.Who specializes in skin ailments, skin cancers, etc.
A. urologist
B. neurologist
C. CORRECT: dermatologist
D. Oncologist
50.Who specializes in hearing and ear health?
A. CORRECT: audiologist
B. urologist
C. oncologist
D. radiologists
PHYSICIAN Objective type Questions with Answers
51.who puts patients to sleep or controls pain for surgery?
A. dermatologist
B. audiologist
C. CORRECT: anesthesiologist
D. Neurologist
52.Who is foot specialist?
A. pediatrician
B. CORRECT: podiatrist
C. psychiatrist
D. audiologist
53. who trained and licensed to treat people?
A. GP
B. OD
C. CORRECT: MD
D. PA
54.Who deals with pregnancy cases?
A. podiatrist
B. orthopedist
C. CORRECT: obstetrician
D. Pediatrician
56.Liquid portion of blood after blood cells and clotting elements form a clot; used for testing chemicals found in blood.
A. sputum
B. solutes
C. heparin
D. CORRECT: serum
Ans:D
57.Which certificate that allows a physician in the office laboratory to conduct both low-complexity and moderate-complexity tests.
A. order of draw
B. certificate of waiver
C. CORRECT: provider-performed microscopy (PPM) procedures
D. midstream clean-catch specimen
58.what is the process of identifying compatibility by determining proteins on the red blood cells of the donor and recipient.
A. CORRECT: crossmatching
B. urinalysis
D. compound
59.what is the order or manner in which blood collection tubes are to be drawn order or manner in which blood collection tubes are to be drawn.
A. compound
B. heparin
C. CORRECT: order of draw
D. Serology
60.Which is the test that study the body's immune response by detecting antibodies in the serum.
A. serum
B. solutes
C. microbiology
D. CORRECT: serology
61.bacteria in the urine is called_________.
A. CORRECT: bacteriuria
B. heparin
C. serology
D. serum
62.federal agency that oversees financial regulations of Medicare and Medicaid is called____________.
A. QNS
B. CORRECT: Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C. certificate of waiver
D. first morning specimen
63.blood collection tube in which the internal atmosphere is a vacuum allowing blood to flow into the tubes is called__________.
A. venipuncture
B. bacteriuria
C. CORRECT: evacuated tube
D. Sputum
64.Which is the narrow tube used for transferring liquids by suction.
A. sputum
B. heparin
C. plasma
D. CORRECT: pipette
Ans:D
65.What is the liquid portion of the blood.
A. CORRECT: plasma
B. sputum
C. solutes
D. serum
66.studies that evaluate the clotting process of blood.
A. evacuated tube
B. CORRECT: coagulation studies
C. reagents
D. solutes
67.insufficient amount of a specimen for performing the desired test.
A. CORRECT: quantity not sufficient (QNS)
B. coagulation studies
C. chain of evidence
D. urinalysis
68.urine specimen that requires a strict cleaning procedure and collection during the middle of voiding. (also called ccms) is called_________?
A. CORRECT: midstream clean-catch specimen
B. 24-hour urine specimen
C. crossmatching
D. first morning specimen
69.collection of urine over a 24-hour period to test for kidney infection, checking for high levels of creatinine, uric acid, hormones, electrolytes, and medication is called___________.
A. nosepiece
B. first morning specimen
C. CORRECT: 24-hour urine specimen
D. coagulation studies
Ans:C
70.which is a blood collection method using a winged infusion set.
A. bacteriuria
B. CORRECT: butterfly method
C. serology
D. syringe method
71.urine specimen taken when the patient first awakens; most concentrated specimen is called_________.
A. 24-hour urine specimen
B. midstream clean-catch specimen
C. syringe method
D. CORRECT: first morning specimen
72.test performed to study microorganisms.
A. serology
B. compound
C. bacteriuria
D. CORRECT: microbiology
74.puncture of a vein to obtain a venous blood sample is__________ .
A. pipette
B. CORRECT: venipuncture
C. sputum
D. reagents
75.which organization that conducts studies for ABO blood grouping and Rh typing.
A. CORRECT: blood bank
B. plasma
C. compound
D. nosepiece
76.what is called lung secretions produced by the bronchi.
A. serum
B. plasma
C. CORRECT: sputum
D. Solutes
77. Which certificate that allows a physician office laboratory to perform low-complexity testing.
A. CORRECT: certificate of waiver
B. coagulation studies
C. evacuated tube
D. chain of evidence
78.what are the solutions used when testing specimens in the laboratory.
A. heparin
B. pipette
C. solutes
D. CORRECT: reagents
79.Which blood collection method uses a syringe and sterile needle.
A. reagents
B. butterfly method
C. serum
D. CORRECT: syringe method
80.What is the part of the microscope that holds the objects.
A. sputum
B. CORRECT: nosepiece
C. solutes
D. serum
Ans:B
81.laboratory form showing the identification of a specimen and the laboratory test to be performedis _________________.
A. bacteriuria
B. butterfly method
C. coagulation studies
D. CORRECT: laboratory requisition
82.Which is the analysis of urine to include physical, chemical, and microscopic properties.
A. solutes
B. heparin
C. CORRECT: urinalysis
D. Reagents
Ans:C
83.What is the legislation enacted to ensure the quality of laboratory results by setting performance standards.
A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. CORRECT: Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA 88)
C. coagulation studies
D. laboratory requisition
Ans:B
84.which is the collection routine for a specimen used as evidence.
A. CORRECT: chain of evidence
B. nosepiece
C. order of draw
D. evacuated tube
85.materials suspended in liquid that are not dissolvable are __________.
A. sputum
B. pipette
C. serum
D. CORRECT: solutes
86.Which is having two sets of lens on a microscope.
A. heparin
B. nosepiece
C. solutes
D. CORRECT: compound
Ans:D
87.Which natural substance that prevents clotting; a vacuum tube additive that prevents clotting of the blood in the tube.?
A. pipette
B. serum
C. CORRECT: heparin
D. Sputum
88.a designation placed on a patients medical record indicating that in the case of cessation of circulation and breathing, artificial resuscitation is not to be done?
A. CORRECT: do not resuscitate
B. prognosis
C. advance directive
D. consent
89.which is used when patient who is noncompliant may discharge him or herself?
A. CORRECT: against medical advise
B. advance directive
C. do not resuscitate
D. informed consent
90.who promotes individual wellness & public health?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Sports Medicine Specialist
C. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Preventative Medicine Specialist
91.Who conducts laboratory studies of cells & tissues to aid in diagnosis?
A. Radiologist
B. Nephrologist
C. CORRECT: Pathologist
D. Cardiologist
92.Who specializes in lung & airway diseases such as asthma & emphysema?
A. Dermatologist
B. Pathologist
C. CORRECT: Pulmonologist
D. Oncologist
93.Who specializes in diagnosis & treatment of a broad range of common illnesses & injuries for patients of all ages?
A. Vascular Surgeon
B. Psychiatrics
C. CORRECT: Family Practitioner
D. Pediatrician
94.Who uses radioactive materials to diagnose & treat disease?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Preventative Medicine Specialist
C. Sports Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Nuclear Medicine Specialist
95.Who focuses on the health & disorders of the elderly?
A. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
B. Sports Medicine Specialist
C. Pediatrician
D. CORRECT: Geriatric Specialist
96.Who specializes in a broad range of illnesses & injuries in adults & the elderly, physicals, well visit, primary care physician?
A. Urologist
B. Oncologist
C. CORRECT: Internist
D. Pathologist
97.Who specializes in surgery involving joints, muscles, tendons, & ligaments?
A. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
B. Plastic Surgeon
C. CORRECT: Orthopedic Surgeon
D. Neurological Surgeon
98.Who specializes in diseases of joints & immune system, such as arthritis
A. CORRECT: Rheumatologist?
B. Dermatologist
C. Hematologist
D. Neurologist
100.Who treats injuries caused by athletic activities?
A. Emergency Medicine Specialist
B. Preventative Medicine Specialist
C. CORRECT: Sports Medicine Specialist
D. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
101.Who treats disorders of the nervous system including epilepsy & Parkinson's disease, neuropathy, sciatica, back & leg pain, nerve damage?
A. Nephrologist
B. Urologist
C. Oncologist
D. CORRECT: Neurologist
102.Who specializes in diseases of the hormone-producing glands, including diabetes & thyroid disease?
A. Nephrologist
B. CORRECT: Endocrinologist
C. Neurologist
D. Oncologist
Ans:B
103.Who specializes in surgery of the chest, including lung & open heart surgery?
A. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
B. Vascular Surgeon
C. Orthopedic Surgeon
D. CORRECT: Thoracic Surgeon (Cardiac Surgeon)
Ans:D
104.Who specializes in disorders of the digestive system, including stomach, liver, gallbladder and bowels?
A. Cardiologist
B. Oncologist
C. Pulmonologist
D. CORRECT: Gastroenterologist
Ans:D
105.Who specializes in diseases of the ear, nose, & throat?
A. Endocrinologist
B. CORRECT: Otolaryngologist
C. Pulmonologist
D. Oncologist
106. specializes in skin diseases such as psoriasis, acne, & skin cancer
a. Rheumatologist
B. CORRECT: Dermatologist
c. Cardiologist
d. Hematologist
107. Who specializes in surgery of the veins & arteries
a. Plastic Surgeon
b. Orthopedic Surgeon
C. CORRECT: Vascular Surgeon
d. Neurological Surgeon
108. Who specializes in surgical treatment of brain, spinal cord & nerve disorders
a. Colon/Rectal Surgeon
b. Orthopedic Surgeon
c. Plastic Surgeon
D. CORRECT: Neurological Surgeon
109. Who treats victims & others in need of trauma care
a. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
B. CORRECT: Emergency Medicine Specialist
c. Preventative Medicine Specialist
d. Sports Medicine Specialist
110. Who specializes in kidney disease & high blood pressure
a. Hematologist
b. Neurologist
C. CORRECT: Nephrologist
d. Pathologist
111. Who treats patients with disabilities caused by stroke, injury or illness
a. Nuclear Medicine Specialist
b. Sports Medicine Specialist
c. Preventative Medicine Specialist
D. CORRECT: Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation Specialist
112. Who specializes in eye health, disorders & injuries
a. Dermatologist
B. CORRECT: Ophthalmologist
c. Pathologist
d. Hematologist
113. Which uses X-rays, ultrasound, MRI & other technologies to diagnose & treat problems
a. Pathologist
b. Urologist
c. Cardiologist
D. CORRECT: Radiologist
114. Who specializes in diagnosis & treatment of cancer & other tumors
a. Urologist
b. Pathologist
c. Radiologist
D. CORRECT: Oncologist
115. Who specializes in the care of infants, children, & teens
a. Radiologist
b. Psychiatrics
C. CORRECT: Pediatrician
d. Dermatologist
116. Who specializes in mental & emotional disorders
a. Internist
b. Pathologist
c. Pediatrician
D. CORRECT: Psychiatrics
117. Who specializes in keeping patients pain-free during medical procedures such as surgery
A. CORRECT: Anesthesiologist
b. Nephrologist
c. Ophthalmologist
d. Pathologist
118. Who specializes in colon/rectal surgery for conditions such as cancer, colitis, & hemorrhoids. AKA Proctologist
a. Plastic Surgeon
B. CORRECT: Colon/Rectal Surgeon
c. Orthopedic Surgeon
d. Neurological Surgeon
119. Which seaweed extract used to make certain media solid for bacterial cultures.
a. HDL
B. CORRECT: agar
c. EDTA
d. C&S
120. What is the test to determine which antibiotic is most effective against cultured organisms.
a. agar
B. CORRECT: C&S
c. crenated
d. EDTA
121. What is the formation of notches on the edges of red blood cells.
a. hemolyzed
b. agar
C. CORRECT: crenated
d. EDTA
122. What is the test measuring a patient's ability to metabolize food 2 hours after a meal.
a. crenated
B. CORRECT: 2-hour postprandial test
c. renal epithelial cells
d. chemistry profile
123. what is the method to measure ESR using a self-zeroing tube calibrated from 0 to 100.
a. hemolyzed
b. crenated
C. CORRECT: Westergren method
d. reagent strip
124. what are the common casts found in urine that are pale and transparent; appear in unchecked hypertension.
a. hemolyzed
b. reagent strip
c. HDL
D. CORRECT: hyaline casts
125. Which epithelial cells are released by the kidney indicating disease.
a. hyaline casts
b. total cholesterol
C. CORRECT: renal epithelial cells
d. reagent strip
126. which red blood cells are colorless and cannot be seen under magnification.
A. CORRECT: hemolyzed
b. EDTA
c. HDL
d. Crenated
127. blood test that details the chemical composition of the blood. Is called__________
A. CORRECT: chemistry profile
b. reagent strip
c. urochrome
d. hemolyzed
128. what is the combined measurement of LDL and HDL cholesterol.
a. hyaline casts
b. serum cholesterol
c. reagent strip
D. CORRECT: total cholesterol
129. white, fatlike substance made in the liver is ___________.
a. total cholesterol
b. reagent strip
C. CORRECT: serum cholesterol
d. Hemolyzed
130. What is the equipment that uses light photometry to analyze a reagent test strip.
a. total cholesterol
b. hyaline casts
C. CORRECT: automated urine analyzer
d. Crenated
131. yellow pigment derived from urobilin that is left over when hemoglobin breaks down during red blood cell destruction is __________.
a. HDL
b. crenated
c. agar
D. CORRECT: urochrome
132. chemical pad on a dipstick that tests for the presence of sugar is called_________.
a. reagent strip
b. crenated
C. CORRECT: glucose reagent strip
d. hyaline casts
133. Dipstick containing several chemical pads that detects a specific substance in a body fluid is_________.
a. glucose reagent strip
b. hyaline casts
c. myoglobinuria
D. CORRECT: reagent strip
134. Which anticoagulant is used for preserving blood for hematology studies.
a. agar
B. CORRECT: EDTA
c. HDL
d. Crenated
135. globin from damaged muscle cells in the urine is ____________.
A. CORRECT: myoglobinuria
b. reagent strip
c. agar
d. hyaline casts
136. which medical care based on the latest and most accurate clincial research
A. CORRECT: Evidence-based medicine
b. Electronic prescribing
c. Computer-assisted coding
d. Walkout statement
e.
137. assigning preliminary diagnosis and procedure codes using computer software is ____________
a. Autoposting
b. Evidence-based medicine
C. CORRECT: Computer-assisted coding
d. Electronic prescribing
138. Which automated processes used to protect data and control access to data
A. CORRECT: Technical safeguards
b. Physical safeguards
c. Administrative safeguards
d. Audit trail
139. Which policies and procedures designed to protect electronic health information outlined by the HIPAA security rule
a. Technical safeguards
B. CORRECT: Administrative safeguards
c. Audit/edit report
d. Physical safeguards
140. Which provides the electronic routing of funds between banks
a. Electronic data interchange (EDI)
b. Electronic medical records (EMRs)
C. CORRECT: Electronic funds transfer (EFT)
d. Electronic prescribing
141. A triangular muscle that covers the shoulder is __________.
a. Allergy
b. Diluent
C. CORRECT: Deltoid
d. Distal
142. The site used for an intramuscular injection into the muscle of the outer thigh area is _________.
a. Aspirate
b. Intradermal
c. Gastroenterology
D. CORRECT: Vastus lateralis
143. A small glass container with a rubber stopper containing medications is _________.
a. Distal
b. Scalpel
C. CORRECT: Vial
d. Proximal
144. A hypersensitivity to a substance that does not normally cause a reaction is _________.
a. Diluent
b. Ampule
c. Gauge
D. CORRECT: Allergy
145. The term describing the administration of an injectable medication by placing it into the superficial layer, or dermis, of the skin is ____________.
A. CORRECT: Intradermal
b. Intramuscular
c. Distal
d. Proximal
146. What is used to determine the accuracy of a machine or piece of equipment.
a. Allergy
b. Gauge
C. CORRECT: Calibrate
d. Aspirate
147. A small portable machine to measure blood sugar is__________.
a. Gauge
B. CORRECT: Glucometer
c. Purulent
d. Allergy
148. The process of bringing two edges, as in a wound, closer together is ______.
A. CORRECT: Approximation
b. Glucometer
c. Proximal
d. Aspirate
149. A small glass container that can be sealed with its contents sterilized.
A. CORRECT: Ampule
b. Gauge
c. Purulent
d. Vial
150. Which Deals with disorders of the stomach and intestines.
A. CORRECT: Gastroenterology
b. Allergy
c. Dermatology
d. Vastus lateralis
151. Drainage from a wound or body part that contains pus.
a. Gauge
b. Diluent
C. CORRECT: Purulent
d. Ampule
152. The point farthest from a medical line, or the center, of a body or a body part. When applied to the location of teeth, the surface of the tooth farthest away from the midline is _________. (missing sentence)
a. Vial
b. Deltoid
C. CORRECT: Distal
d. Diluent
153. Which is used to draw liquid in or out by using suction.
A. CORRECT: Aspirate
b. Allergy
c. Ampule
d. Calibrate
154. Thread or wire material used to surgically close an open wound is ___________.
a. Intradermal
B. CORRECT: Suture Material or Sutures
c. Subcutaneous
d. Vastus lateralis
155. The study of the skin and accessory structures and related diseases is ____________.
a. Allergy
B. CORRECT: Dermatology
c. Distal
d. Deltoid
156. A liquid agent added to medication in a solid or powder form for administration by injection is _________.
a. Deltoid
b. Purulent
c. Distal
D. CORRECT: Diluent
157. The point closest to a medical line, or the center, of a body or body part is _______.
a. Vial
B. CORRECT: Proximal
c. Approximation
d. Distal
158. The term used to identify the site used for an intramuscular injection into the gluteus medius muscle is _________.
A. CORRECT: Dorsogluteal
b. Proximal
c. Distal
d. Diluent
159. A sharp surgical instrument used for cutting and dissecting tissue is__________
a. Vial
B. CORRECT: Scalpel
c. Gauge
d. Ampule
160. Photoreceptors that respond to dim light and are responsible for black and white color is called_____
A. CORRECT: Rods
b. Otic
c. Miosis
d. Cones
161. Loss of transparency of the lens of the eye is ________
a. Rods
b. Cornea
c. Otic
D. CORRECT: Cataract
162. 1 inch segment of tube that runs from the external ear to the middle ear is_______
a. Cataract
b. Auditory occicles
C. CORRECT: Auditory canal
d. Accomodation
163. Which of the following is Pertaining to the eye
a. Otic
b. mydriasis
c. Cataract
D. CORRECT: Ophthalmic
164. The change that occurs in the ocular lens when it focusses at various distances is ______
A. CORRECT: Accomodation
b. Otic
c. Cornea
d. Cataract
165. Contraction of the pupil is called_________
a. Cones
B. CORRECT: Miosis
c. Otic
d. Myopia
166. Photoreceptors responsible for color is___________
A. CORRECT: Cones
b. Cornea
c. Miosis
d. Rods
167. Which of the following is Pertaining to the ear
a. Miosis
B. CORRECT: Otic
c. Cones
d. Myopia
168. A bony maze composed of the vestibule, cochlea, and sicirclar canals of the inner ear
A. CORRECT: Labryinth
b. Cornea
c. Cataract
d. Rods
169. The transparent tissue covering the anterior portion of the eye is________
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. Otic
D. CORRECT: Cornea
170. A memranous skin that separates the external ear from the middle ear is________
a. Acoustic nerve
b. Cornea
C. CORRECT: Tympanic membrane
d. Myopia
171. The fluid that is found in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye is __________
a. Accomodation
b. Rods
C. CORRECT: Aqueous humor
d. Miosis
172. What is called the process of dilation?
A. CORRECT: mydriasis
b. Rods
c. Miosis
d. Myopia
173. Atubular structure within the middle ear that runs to the nasopharynx
a. Cataract
b. Ophthalmic
C. CORRECT: Eustachian tube
d. Acoustic nerve
174. The set of small bony structures in the ear is
a. Miosis
b. Auditory canal
c. mydriasis
D. CORRECT: Auditory occicles
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