One of the reasons I think it's so important to foster intellectual curiosity and, ultimately, learning and a love for learning is how it subtly changes the very way you interact with and understand the world around you.

It's funny, because I spent time just to hunt and find a skull in Skyrim just so I could rotate it in my inventory and admire how detailed it was for five minutes, pleased about how I could point out and name individual bones (they even included the individual cranial sutures! Including my favourite suture (lambdoid suture)). I'm now trying to hunt for a skeleton so I can spend even more time admiring it. There's something funny and empowering about how the way I interact with things has changed with my learning.

If there is nothing else you do, learn. It doesn't matter what you learn, just seek out information. I know for some, a love of learning was almost punished in environments like school, so start out with things you are inspired by, things that deeply pique your interest. Learning isn't a punishment, it doesn't have to be scary. Whatever you want to learn about is worth the time and effort it takes to understand it.

Mod 3 General Topics

Temporal Fosse in Reptiles

The class reptilia is divided into 5 subclasses on the bases of presence or absence certain openings through the temporal region of the skull.

Subclass I: Anapsida

Primitive reptiles with a solid skull roof. No temporal openings.

Subclass II: Euryapsida (extinct)

Skull with a single dorso-lateral temporal opening on either side, bounded by postorbital and squamosal bones.

Subclass III: Parapsida (extinct)

Skull with a single dorso-lateral temporal opening on either side bounded below by the supratemporal and postfrontal bones.

Subclass IV: Synapsida (extinct)

Skull with a single lateral temporal opening on either side bounded above by the postorbital and squamosal bones.

Subclass V: Diapsida

Skull with two temporal openings on either side separated by the bar of post orbital and squamosal bones.

Order Rhynchocephalia

Body small, elongated, and lizard like

Limbs pentadactyl, clawed, and burrowing.

Skin covered by granular scales and a mid-dorsal row of spines.

Skull diapsid. Nasal openings separate. Parietal foramen with vestigeal pineal eye present. Quadrate is fixed.

Vertebrae amphicoelous or biconcave. Numerous abdominal ribs present.

Teeth acrodont. Cloacal aperture transverse.

Heart incompletely 4-chambered

No copulatory organ in male.

Crop Milk

At the base of the neck and just in front of the sternum, the middle of the esophagus expands into a thin-walled, bilobed, elastic sac called the crop.

The crop serves as a food reservoir into which the hurriedly swallowed, dry and hard food grains are stored, moistened, and softened.

Pigeons have a unique ability to produce 'crop milk', a soft cheesy and nourishing secretion. Both sexes can produce it, especially during breeding season.

It is formed by the degeneration of the epithelial cells lining the crop.

It is regurgitated into the mouth of the young bird till they are old enough to manage a grain-diet like their parents.

Prolactin hormone, secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, stimulates and controls the formation of crop milk.

Crop milk contains water, protein, fat, lactose, and ash.

Some parrots, flamingos, and penguins also produce crop milk

Flight Adaptations in Birds:

1. Shape: The perfectly streamline spindle-shaped body is designed to offer minimum resistance from wind, allowing it to easily through air.

2. Compact body: The light but strong dorsally and heavier ventrally body helps in maintaining balance in air. The attachment of wings high up, the high positioning of lighter organs, and the lower positioning of heavy organs and muscles all factor to give the body a low center of mass.

3. Body-covering of feathers: The smooth, closely fitting backwardly directed feathers make the body more streamlined and reduce air friction to a minimum. They also act as a blanked that envelopes air around the bird which adds to they buoyancy. The nonconducting covering of feathers insulates the body and prevents loss of heat.

4. Forelimbs modified into wings: Wings are the special flight muscles which act as instruments of propulsion through air. The particular shape of the wing, with a thick strong leading edge, convex upper surface, and concave lower surface, causes reduction in air pressure above and increase below, with minimum turbulence behind.

5. Short tail: A short muscular tail with a series of long caudal feathers arranged in a fan like manor. It serves as a rudder for steering during flight and as a counterbalance in perching.

6. Beak: The mouth is drawn out into a horny beak, it is used as a forcep. It is used for feeding, preening, nest building, offence, and defense.

7. Mobile neck and head: The neck of birds is very long and flexible. Since the beak is used for so much, mobility of the head is important.

8. Bipedal locomotion: The hindlimbs spring somewhat anteriorly from the trunk to balance and support the entire weight of the body. They are used for locomotion on ground or in water. Bipedality is characteristic of birds, their legs are relatively strong.

9. Integument: The loose skin is responsible for extensive movement of the skeletal musculature.

10. Large flight muscles: Muscles on the back are greatly reduced while the flight muscles on the breast are greatly developed, weighing nearly 1/6th of the entire bird.

automatically clamped to its perch.

11. Perching: The hind limbs of a bird are good for an aboreal life. Their leg muscles are well developed and help in perching. As the bird settles on a tree, the bending of legs exerts a pull on the flexor tendons which makes the toes automatically flex and grip the branch.

12. Endoskeleton: The fusion of the bones built with the smallest amount of material follows the Hollow-Girder principle. It combines strength with lightness, one of the first essentials in successful flight. Most of the bones are pneumatic and filled with air sacs instead of marrow. Skull bones are light and most of them are firmly fused together. Thoracic ribs are compact, necessary for flight, by concentrating the mass.

13. Digestive system: The rate of metabolism of birds is very high. The digestive system is compact but effective. The rectum is short because the faecal matter is relatively small. As they cannot afford to be weighed down with excess faecal weight, it is excreted immediately.

14. Air sacs and Respiration: The lungs have a system of air-sacs attached to them, which occupy all the available space between internal organs, even extending to the cavities of hollow bones. The air-sacs secure more perfect aeration of lungs and help in the regulation of the body temperature.

15. Warm blooded: Birds are warm-blooded. The perfect aeration of blood is responsible for the high temperature of body (40-46°C), which is necessity for flight requiring a great output of energy over a long period.

16. Circulatory system: Rapid metabolism and warm-bloodedness require a large oxygen supply and an efficient circulatory system.

17. Single ovary: Presence of a single functional ovary on the left side in the female bird leads to reduction of weight which is essential for flight.

Migration in Birds

Bird migration is a two-way journey. It is a regular, periodic, to-and-fro movement of a population of some birds between their summer and winter homes, or from a breeding and nesting place to a feeding and resting place.

Not all birds migrate, the ones that stay in one place all year round are called residential birds, ex: bobwhites

There are various types of migration, for example:

1. Latitudinal migration: Migration along the latitudinal lines of the earth, like north to south and vice versa. Ex: heading up north to avoid summer heat and moving back south to avoid cold winters.

2. Longitudinal migration: Migration along the longitudinal lines of the earth, like east to west and vice versa. Ex: moving from a breeding area in Asia to the Atlantic coast to avoid continental winter.

3. Altitudinal migration: Migration up and down the slopes of mountains to different altitudes. Ex: moving up to the top during summers and back down to the bottom during winters. Aka vertical migration.

4. Partial migration: In addition to residential birds, an influx of new birds of the same species for a short period of time. Ex: blue jays in North America traveling south to join the sedentary populations in the southern states.

5. Irregular migration: In some birds after breeding, the adults and young may stray from their home to disperse in all directions over many or a few 100 miles in search of food and safety from enemies. (??What) Ex: Herons.

6. Seasonal migration: In Britain, nightingales are considered to be summer visitors because the arrive in spring from the south, remain to breed, then leave back south in the autumn. Meanwhile redwings are considered winter visitors because they arrive in the autumn from the north, stay for the winter, and fly back north in the spring.

Modes of Flight in Migration:

1. Nocturnal and Diurnal:

Birds which migrate during the day time are called diurnal migrants. They have a greater tendency to travel in flocks, be it well organized flocks like ducks or loose flocks like swallows.

Birds which migrate during the night time are called nocturnal migrants. They fly late to avoid predators in the dark. Ex: small birds like sparrows.

2. Segregation during migration:

Some birds travel in separate companies such as kingfishers

Others travel in mixed companies of several species due to similar size or common method of feeding. Ex: swallows and blue birds.

In some species, male and female birds travel separately, males arrive first to build nests while the young usually travel with the females.

3. Range of migration:

The distance traveled by migratory birds depends upon local conditions and the species concerned.

The Himalayan snow partridge only descends a few 100 feet, covering hardly a mile or two while the chicades travel down nearly 2500 meters.

The longest traveling birds is the artic turn. It breeds in the summer far in the Artic circle and migrates a distance of 17,500km to reach the edges of Antarctica by winter, then returns the same way by summer.

4. Altitude of flight:

As in how close to the earth birds are flying at. Most migration takes place within 1000 meters of the earth. Some small nocturnal migrant birds fly at 1500 to 4000 meters.

Some species cross the Andes and the Himalayas at altitudes of 6000 meters or more.

5. Speed and duration of flight:

The average flight velocity of small birds exceeds 50kph, the greatest speed recorded in India is of two species of swifts, 250-325kph.

Several hundreds of kilometers may be covered nonstop, with an average of 800km. The golden plover holds the world record for the longest nonstop bird flight, from Hudson bay in Alaska to South America, 3850km.

6. Regularity of Migration:

Several species show an incredible regularity when it comes to their arrival and departure. Despite long distances and harsh weather, they are often very punctual when it comes to their time of arrival. Sometimes they even come back to the exact same breeding place every year.

7. Routes of Migration:

Birds usually follow definite lines of flight.

Nocturnal migration of small land birds proceeds with the general airflow on a broad front. In the spring, it occurs northwards along warm air currents from the south. In the autumn, it occurs southwards on the cool winds of the north.

Deviation in path can occurs due to configuration of land, coastline, courses of great rivers or intervening mountain chains, etc.

Anatomy And Physiologymr. Mac's Biology Page

The human body is a beautiful and efficient system well worth study. In order to study and talk about anatomy and physiology, you need to be familiar with standard anatomical positions and terms, as well as the various planes, cavities, and organ systems that make up the physical form.

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Welcome to your class website. You can gain access to the class syllabus on this page. Assignments will be provided through Schoology. Parents and students, if you have any questions regarding the class syllabus or class assignments please email me and I will get back to you as quickly as possible. Contact Information: [email protected].

Anatomy and physiology presented in 3D model sets, 3D animations, and illustrations Each unit presents a body system in a series of chapters, with bite-sized visual interactivities and quizzes Trackable unit objectives with multiple-choice and dissection quizzes for assessing self-paced learning.

Human Anatomy & Physiology Plus Mastering A&P with Pearson eText - Access Card Package (11th Edition) (What's New in Anatomy & Physiology) by Elaine N.

Topics in this course include: basic body organization; functional biochemistry; cell biology and histology; the study of the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, circulatory, lymphatic, and respiratory systems, with an emphasis on normal anatomy and physiology with some clinical applications. Interactive Anatomy is the perfect resource to enhance your anatomy and physiology studies. With the newly added content A.D.A.M. Interactive Anatomy is ideal if you are taking allied health, nursing, continuing medical education (CME) or other medical related courses requiring the study of clinical applications and concepts.

The Anatomical Position

To describe or talk about human anatomy, you need to start from an agreed-upon view of the human body. Anatomical position for the human form is the figure standing upright, eyes looking forward, upper extremities at the sides of the body with palms turned out.

Anatomical Terms

When you’re talking anatomy in a scientific way, everyday words such as front, back, side, above, and below just aren’t precise enough. Instead use the terms in the following list:

Anterior or ventral: Toward the front of the body

Posterior or dorsal: Toward the back of the body

Superior: A part above another part

Inferior: A part below another part

Medial: Toward the midline (median plane) of the body

Lateral: Away from the midline of the body; toward the sides

Proximal: Toward the point of attachment to the body

Distal: Away from the point of attachment to the body

Deep: Toward the inside of the body

Superficial: Toward the outside of the body

Parietal: A membrane that covers an internal body wall

Visceral: A membrane that covers an organ

Also remember that right and left are that of the patient, not the observer.

Anatomical Planes of the Body

You may not think about the planes of your body much, but you have them nonetheless, and if you’re talking anatomy, knowing the names of the planes comes in handy. (Too bad sagittal and transverse don’t lend themselves to song as easily as rain and Spain do.) The main planes and their subplanes are in the following list:

Sagittal: The plane that runs down through the body, dividing the body into left and right portions. Subsections of the sagittal plane include

Midsagittal: Runs through the median plane and divides along the line of symmetry

Parasagittal: Parallel to the midline but does not divide into equal left and right portions

Frontal (coronal): The plane that runs perpendicular to the sagittal plane and divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions

Transverse: Horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions; also called cross-section

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Anatomical Body Cavities

Medical and crime shows have made body cavities all too familiar, and anatomically speaking, these spaces are very important, providing housing and protection for vital organs. The following list identifies the cavities and subcavities of the human body:

Dorsal cavity: Bones of the cranial portion of the skull and vertebral column, toward the posterior (dorsal) side of the body

Cranial cavity: Contains the brain

Spinal cavity: Contains the spinal cord, which is an extension of the brain

Ventral cavity: Anterior portion of the torso; divided by the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity

Thoracic cavity: The chest; contains the trachea, bronchi, lungs, esophagus, heart and great blood vessels, thymus gland, lymph nodes, and nerve,. as well as the following smaller cavities:

Pleural cavities: Surround each lung

Pericardial cavity: Contains the heart. The pleural cavities flank the pericardial cavity.

Abdominopelvic cavity: An imaginary line running across the hipbones and dividing the body into the abdominal and pelvic cavities:

Abdominal cavity: Contains the stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, small intestines, and most of the large intestine

Pelvic cavity: Contains the end of the large intestine, rectum, urinary bladder, and internal reproductive organs

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Anatomical Organ Systems

If you’re talking anatomy and physiology, you’re talking about the human body and its organs. The 11 systems in the following table provide the means for every human activity — from breathing to eating to moving to reproducing:

SystemWhat the System IncludesWhat the System DoesIntegumentarySkin and its accessoriesProtects underlying tissues, regulates body temperatureSkeletalBones and connective tissuesProvides framework, protects underlying soft tissues, produces blood cellsMuscularSkeletal, smooth, and cardiac musclePowers movement, maintains posture, generates heatNervousBrain, spinal cord, nerves, sensory organs and cellsCommunicates via impulse, integrates functions of other body systemsEndocrinePituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, and adrenals glands; pancreas; ovaries; and testesCommunicates via hormonesCardiovascularHeart, blood vessels, and bloodTransports materials throughout bodyLymphaticTonsils, spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, and lymphProvides immunity, filters tissue fluidDigestiveMouth, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines (alimentary canal), and accessory organs (including salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder)Obtains nutrients from foodRespiratoryNose and mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungsPerforms gas exchange with blood (oxygen in, carbon dioxide out)UrinaryKidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethraFilters waste from the blood for excretion, retains waterReproductiveOvaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, and vulva in females; testes, seminal vesicles, penis, urethra, prostate, and bulbourethral glands in malesProduces offspring

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Neufeld Central‎ > ‎

Anatomy and Physiology

Thiscourse is designed for those students interested in advanced topics inbiology. The major theme in this coursewill be human anatomy and physiology. Students will be expected to learn not only how organs and organ systemsare structured but also how they function. It is based on student participation in classroom as well as laboratoryactivities. Animal dissection will be amajor component of this class, with a special emphasis on the cat. This course is for those students who havepreviously completed a biology course, a chemistry course, and a physicalscience course.

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300+ TOP OPHTHALMOLOGY Objective Questions and Answers

OPHTHALMOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except: A. Preauricular lymphadenopathy B. large central geographic corneal erosions C. Multifocal subepithelial infiltrates D. Enlarged corneal nerves Ans: D 2. Tucking the superior oblique tendon? A. is appropriate to correct superior oblique muscle palsy B. can result in Brown syndrome C. is the procedure of choice when the symptoms and measurements indicate principally a torsional misalignment D. a and b E. b and c Ans: D 3. The ability of a light wave from a laser to form interference fringes with another wave from the same beam, separated in time, is a measure of its? A. temporal coherence B. spatial coherence C. polarization D. directionality Ans: A 4. Which of the following is not a point of firm attachment between the sclera and uvea? A. Ora serrata B. Scleral spur C. internal ostia of vortex veins D. peripapillary tissue Ans: A 5. a 1 year old child presents with monocular vertical nystagmus. What is the best course of action? A. Follow the case to see whether head nodding develops B. Follow the case to see whether abnormal head position develops D. Undertake neuroimaging (perferably MRI) Ans: D 6. a 9 year old boy with a history of atopy presents with a seasonally recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis and complains of blurred vision for 1 week. giant papillae are seen upon lid eversion. All of the following could also be seen on the slit-lamp except: A. vascular pannus and pnctate epithelial erosions involving the superior cornea B. An oval epithelial ulceration with underlying stromal opacification in the central cornea C. Limbal follicles D. Conjunctical symblephara Ans: D 7. All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Shigella D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Ans: D 8. All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except: A. indirect ophthalmoscopy B. computed tomography C. electrophysiology D. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) E. echography Ans: D 9. Optic disc drusen typically demonstrate all of the following features except A. arcuate visual field defects B. high reflective signal on b-scan ultrasonography C. visual acuity loss D. optic disc elevation and blurred margins Ans: C 10. The power of an intraocular lens should be increased A. as the power of the cornea increases and the axial length increases B. as the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length increases C. as the power of the cornea increases ans the axial length decreases D. as the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length decreases Ans: D

OPHTHALMOLOGY MCQs 11. The five major branches of the facial nerve include the temporal, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical and A. Temporal parietal B. Zygomatic C. Infraorbital D. Zygomaticofacial Ans: B 12. A lens coloboma? A. is usually associated with previous lens trauma B. is typically located superiorly C. is typically associated with normal zonular attachments D. is often associated with cortical lens opacification Ans: D 13. The near point of the fully accomated hyperopic eye? A. is beyond infinity, optically speaking B. is between infinity and the cornea C. is behind the eye D. is beyond minus infinity, optically speaking E. cannot be determined without additional information Ans: E 14. Which of the following statements is false? A. Epiblepharon is well-tolerated and only occaionally requires surgical correction B. telecanthus indicates increased separation between the bony orbits C. Amblyopia resulting from ptosis is usually a result of induced astigmatism rather than occlusion D. The blepharophimosis syndrome is often inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion Ans: B 15. Risk factor(s) for nuclear o pacification identified by epidemiological studies include? A. current smoking B. white race C. lower education D. all of the above Ans: D 16. The following statement about diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis (dusn) is correct: A. The disease never occurs bilaterally B. DUSN is a common casue of incorrectly diagnosed "unilateral retinitis pigmentosa" C. Eradication of the subretinal nematode often results in an intense inflammatory reaction D. Visual loss typically continues after successful eardication of the subretinal nematode E. The condition is seen only in individuals with a history of travel to endemic areas Ans: B 17. Patients with acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy (APMPPE) may have all of the following clinical features except: A. unilateral or asymmetric fundus involvement B. recurrent or relentless progression of fundus lesions leading to permanent loss of central vision C. associated cerebral vasculitis D. prompt response to oral steroids Ans: D 18. In the CNTG, Collaborative Normal-Tension glaucoma treatment study, progression was reduced by nearly threefold by a reduction in IOP of? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50% Ans: B 19. Which of the following signs is most likely to be prsent in a patient with Graves ophthalmopathy? A. Exophthalmos B. Exernal ophthalmoplegia C. Eyelid Retraction D. Optic neuropathy Ans: C 20. Topical anesthesia can include? A. IV sedation B. intracameral lidocaine C. lidocaine jelly D. tetracain drops E. all of the above Ans: E 21. A family history of retinoblastoma is present in what percent of newly diagnosed retinoblastoma patients? A. 1% B. 6% C. 18% D. 40% Ans: B 22. Which of the following infectious agents can be linked to interstital keratitis? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpes zoster virus C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. All of the Above Ans: D 23. During phacoemulsification, when the srgeon notes a tear in the posterior capsule, the first priority is? A. finish phacoemulsification on the nucleus B. convert to extracapsular extraction C. freeze the action and assess D. perform a vitrectomy Ans: C 24. Which of the following is most likely to prompt additional evaluation in a patient with facial palsy? A. simultaneous bilateral facial palsy B. recovery of facial nerve function that occurs 3 weeks after the facial palsy C. facial palsy occuring in a patient older than 50 years of age D. upper and lower facial musculature equally affected Ans: A 25. Sturge-Weber Syndrome? A. is usually bilateral B. is always inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern C. is more common in males D. is rarely associated with glaucoma E. may be associated with glaucoma in infants Ans: E 26. All of the following are common causes of transient visual loss except? A. nonarteretic ischemic optic neuropathy B. migraine C. giant cell arteritis D. pseudotumor cerebri Ans: A 27. The far point of the nonaccommodated myopic eye? A. and the fovea are corresponding points B. is posterior to the eye, optically speaking C. is nearer to the eye than the point of focus of the fully accommodated eye D. cannot be moved by placing a lens in front of the eye Ans: A 28. In normals, the average normal corneal thickness is? A. 520 um B. 540 um C. 560 um D. 580 um E. 600 um Ans: B 29. Congenital anterior chamber anomalies include all of the follow except: A. posterior embryotoxon B. Peters anomaly C. Axenfeld-Rieger syndrome D. posterior keratoconus E. iris colomboas Ans: E 30. Which of the following is most likely to be positive in an American patient with acute non-granulomatous uveitis? A. HLA-B27 B. HLA-B51 C. HLA-B5 D. HLA-B54 Ans: A 31. Which of the following statements about pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland is false? A. It can recur in a diffuse manner B. it can transform to a malignant tumor if present long enough. C. recurrences can transform to malignancy D. it can resolve spontaneously Ans: D 32. In the US all of the following conditions could cause xerophthalmia except: A. Chronic alcoholism B. Cystic Fibrosis C. Bowel resection D. Glomerulonephritis Ans: D 33. Two tumors commonly associated with so-called masquerade syndrome are? A. conjunctival lymphoma, choroidal melanoma B. conjunctival lymphoma, intraocular lymphoma C. eyelid sebaceous carcinoma, intraocular lymphoma D. basal cell carcinoma, retinoblastoma Ans: C 34. Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient includes all except: A. a testing chart with symbols arranged in rows of decreasing size that are equally legible B. nonstandardized room illuminations C. a snellen visual acuity chart D. a +1.00 D lens placed over the patient's distance refraction Ans: C 35. Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better? A. View of bone and calcium B. View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction C. Elimination of motion artificat D. Comfort for claustrophobic patients E. Safety to patients with prosthetic implants Ans: B 36. Current smokers should avoid which one of the following? A. beta carotene B. cupric oxide C. zinc oxide D. vitamin e Ans: A 37. What is the retinal magnification of an eye with a refractive error of +5D when viewed with a direct opthalmoscope? A. 13.75x B. 15.00x C. 10.75x D. 5.00x Ans: A 38. Which of the rectus muscles inserts the closes to the limbus? A. lateral rectus B. medial rectus C. superior rectus D. inferior rectus Ans: B 39. Clear corneal incisions are associated with all of the following characteristics except: A. more susceptible to wound burn B. more difficult to construct C. less likely to be watertight D. less incidence of endophthalmitis Ans: D 40. Which of the following is not considered to be an illusion? A. Pulfrich phenomenon B. metamorphopsia C. micropsia D. palinopsia Ans: D 41. Which of the following is commonly associated with host defenses against parasitic infections? A. neutrophils B. basophils C. eosinophils D. macrophages Ans: C 42. All of the following are risk factors for cystoid macular edema after cataract surgery except: A. diabetes mellitus B. flexible open-loop anterior chamber IOL implantation C. ruptured posterior capsule D. marked postoperative inflammation E. vitreous loss Ans: B 43. Which of the following viruses is transmissible even after medical instrumentation is cleaned with alcohol? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Adenovirus C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. Epstein-Barr Virus Ans: B 44. Which of the following statements about cataract surgery in patients with diabetes is correct? A. Patients with diabetes enrolled in the ETDRS who underwent cataract surgery did not show an immediate imporvement in visual acuity. B. Patiens with diabetes with CSME should have cataract surgery performed prior to focal laser C. Patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should ideally have scatter laser immediately before cataract extraction D. Patients with diabetes and high risk proliferative changes visible through their cataract should have scatter laser 1 to 2 months prior to cataract extraction E. Preoperative phenylephrine drops for dilation are contraindicated in patients with diabetes undergoing cataract surgery Ans: D 45. Which of the follow is most useful in distinguishing the cause of anisocoria that is greater in dark than in light? A. cocaine 10 % B. pilocarpine 0.1% C. pilocarpine 1% D. pilocarpine 2.5% Ans: A 46. A single intraoperative application of mitomycin C has been associated with an increase risk of? A. hypotony B. bleb hyperemia C. bleb leaks and infections D. all of the above E. a and c only Ans: E 47. The risk of cataract development may be decreased by foods rich in? A. vitamin a B. vitamin c C. beta carotene D. leutin Ans: D 48. The parents of a 7 month old child complain of intermittent tearing OD only, beginning 3 months ago. Their pediatrician prescribed lacrimal sac massage but noticed a decreased red reflex OD on a follow-up visit. The most likely diagnosis is? A. congenital glaucoma B. infantile cataract C. chlamydial conjunctivitis with corneal scarring D. rentinoblastoma Ans: A 49. Which of the following statements regarding Herpetic Eye Disease Study (HEDS. is false? A. It demonstrated that topical corticosteroids given together with a prophylactic antiviral reduce persistence or progression of stromal inflammation and shorten the duration of herpes simplex stromal keratitis B. It showed that long term suppressive oral acyclovir theraphy reduces the rate of recurrent HSV keratitis and helps to preserve vision C. It showed some additional benefit of oral acyclovir in treating active HSV stromal keratitis in those patients also receiving concomitant topical cortiscosteroids and trifluridine D. It deomstrated that oral acyclovir did not appear to prevent subsequent HSV stromal keratitis or iritis when it was given briefly along with trifluridine during an episode of epithelial keratitis Ans: C 50. The goal of anterior vitrectomy is? A. removal of vitreous from the wound B. removal of vitreous so that a posterior chamber lens can be placed C. prevention of CME D. removal of vitreous anterior to the posterior lens capsule Ans: D OPHTHALMOLOGY Objective type Questions with Answers 51. The percentage of primary congenital glaucoma that is now known to have a definite genetic component is A. 1% B. 10% C. 25% D. 50% E. 75% Ans: E 52. A healthy 60 year old man presents with a 2 day history of a painful rash on the right side of his forehead extending down to the eyelids. A vesicular skin lesion is also seen near the tip of his nose. Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate? A. Topical trifluridine 1% drops 8 times per day for 14 days B. Oral famciclovir 500 mg two times per day for 10 days C. Oral valacyclovir 1000mg three times per day for 10 days D. Oral acyclovir 800mg three times per day for 10 days Ans: C 53. Parasympathetic fibers destined for the pupil reside in the? A. medulla B. medial portion of CN III C. posterior communicating artery D. pons Ans: B 54. In patients with a facial nerve paralysis, all of the following characteristics may be present except: A. Eyebrow ptosis B. Blepharoptosis C. Lower eyelid ectropion D. Epiphora E. Ocular exposure symptoms Unanswered 55. Which of the following is a true basement membrane? A. Bowman's layer B. zonules of Zinn C. Descemet's membrane D. anterior border layer of iris Ans: C 56. Which of the following nerves does not enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure? A. CN II B. CN III C. CN IV D. CN VI Ans: A 57. Which of the following extraocular muscles inserts farthest from the limbus? A. Superior rectus B. inferior rectus C. inferior oblique D. superior oblique Ans: C 58. All of the following conditions have a characteristic anterior-segment finding except: A. sickle cell disease B. marfan syndrome C. galactosemia D. wilson disease Ans: A 59. The superior transverse ligament is also referred to as? A. Lockwood's ligament B. Sommerring's ligament C. The ROOF D. Whitnall's ligament Ans: D 60. Which of the following statements regarding graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is false? A. It is a relatively common complication of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation in which the grafted cells can attack the patient's tissues. B. Conjunctival inflammation and severe sicca are the main features C. Cicatrical lagophthalmos can occur D. Aggressive lubrication is adequate even in severe cases of GVHD Ans: D 61. Multiple evanescent white dot syndrome (MEWDS) is characterized by each of the following clinical features except: A. enlargement of the physiologic blind spot on visual field testing B. individual hyperfluorescent spots on fluorescein angiogrpahy arranged in a wreathlike patter around the fovea C. typically presents with unilateral photopsias and loss of vision in young females with myopia D. absence of cell in the anterior chamber E. granular appearance of the fovea Ans: B 62. The epidemiology of cataracts suggests that? A. they are more prevalent in those under 65 years of age B. they are more prevalent in women C. they occur only as a consequence of age D. they rarely lead to blindness Ans: B 63. Which of the following uveitic syndromes is least likely to require topical corticosteroid management? A. sarcoidosis B. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis C. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis D. Reiter syndrome Ans: C 64. Which of the following statements about stabismus secondary to thyroid ophthalmopathy is false? A. It can be restrictive B. it can be caused by extraocular muscle weakness C. it usually is surgically corrected early after onset D. it is unrelated to the degree of thyroid function E. both b and c are correct Ans: C 65. Which eye movement disorder is most commonly seen in patients with paraneoplastic syndromes? A. downbeat nystagmus B. upbeat nystagmus C. superior oblique myokymia D. opsoclonus Ans: D 66. Goldmann tonometry? A. is not affected by alteration in scleral rigidity B. is unaffected by laser in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) C. may give an artificially high IOP measurement with increased central corneal thickness D. may give pressure measurements taken over a corneal scar that are falsely low Ans: C 67. Which of the following ocular histologic changes is not considered to be associated with diabetes? mellitus? A. Lacy vacuoliztiaon of the iris B. retinal hemorrhages C. iris hemorrhages D. thickened basement membranes Ans: C 68. An underlying condition is most likely to be determined in a patient with isolated eye pain and? A. pain for greater than 2 years B. ipsilateral facial numbness C. normal neuroimaging of the brain and orbits D. poor reponse to tricyclic antidepressants Ans: B 69. You are about to write the postoperative spectacle prescription for a cataract surgery patient with macular degeneration. The best choice for a reading add for the patient with 20/70 best-corrected vision is? A. +3.00 D B. +3.50 D C. +7.00 D D. a 3.5x magnifer Ans: B 70. Reiter syndrome is associated with all except which of the following? A. nonspecific urethritis B. poly arthritis C. conjunctivitis D. ankylosing spondylitis Ans: D 71. The preferred therapy for infantile glaucoma is? A. topical beta blockers B. topical bromonidine C. trabeculotomy or goniotomy D. oral acetazolamide Ans: C 72. Congenital dacryocele? A. presents with a mass above the medical canthal ligament B. usually responds to systemic antibiotics alone C. can be associated with an intranasal mucocele D. is best treated with incision and drainage through the skin E. usually indicates stenoisis of the bony nasolacrimal canal Ans: C 73. Vision loss in Riley-Day syndrome is most often due to? A. cataracts B. optic nerve hypoplasia C. amblyopia D. corneal scarring Ans: D 74. a 65 year old woman presents with a progressively enlarging mass in the right inferior orbit. distraction of the lower eyelid reveals a "salmon patch" appearance to the fornix. The most likely diagnosis is? A. Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia B. Lymphoma C. sebaceous carcinoma D. melanoma E. Apocrine hidrocystoma Ans: B 75. HLA-B27-associated acute anterior uveitis is associated with all except which of the following systemic disorders? A. Behcet syndrome B. Reiter syndrome C. psoriatic arthritis D. ankylosing spondylitis Ans: A 76. Which is true regarding orbital anatomy? A. The lacrimal gland fossa is located within the lateral orbital wall. B. The optic canal is located within the greater wing of the sphenoid bone C. The medial wall of the optic canal is formed by the lateral wall of the spenoid sinus. D. The nerve to the inferior rectus muscle travels anteriorly along the medial aspect of the muscle and innervates the muscle on its posterior surface Correct Ans: C 77. The Joint Statement of the American Academy of Pediatrics, Section on Ophthalmology; the American Association for Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus; and the American Academy of Ophthalmology recommends at l east 2 dilated funduscopic examinations using binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy for all infants with: A. a birth weight less than 1500 grams B. a gestational age of 28 weeks or less C. a birth weight between 1500 and 2000 grams and an unstable clinical course D. all of the above (Your Answer. Ans: D 78. The most common secondary tumors in retinoblastoma patients within and outside of the field of ocular radiation re? A. within, fibrosarcoma; outside, osteosarcoma B. within, osteosarcoma; outside, melanoma C. within, osteosarcoma; outside, pinealoblastoma D. within, osteosarcoma; outside, osteosarcoma Ans: D 79. Behcet syndrome is associated with all except which of the following? A. aphthous stomatitis B. arthritis C. gential ulceration D. retinal vasculitis Ans: B 80. The gene known to be associated with aniridia is? A. CYP1B1 B. P1TX2 C. FKHL7 D. PAX6 E. LMX1B Ans: D 81. Optic disc edema may precede vision loss in AION? A. True B. False Ans: A 82. Incorrect statement regarding contact lense wear? A. There is a reduction in hemidesmosome density B. Level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced C. There is increased production of CO2 in the epithelium D. There is a reduction in glucose utilization by corneal epithelium Ans: B 83. Which is NOT a feature of Horner’s syndrome? A. Enophthalmos B. Miosis C. Ptosis D. Anhydrosis E. Loss of ciliospinal reflex F. Exophthalmos Ans: F 84. “morning glory” sign is seen in MRI of patients with? A. Retinoblastoma B. Progressive Supranuclear palsy C. Multiple scelerosis D. Retinal coloboma Ans: B 85. Source of bleeing in a case of hyphaema due to blunt injury eye is? A. Circulus iridis major B. Circulus iridis minor C. Short posterior ciliary vessels D. Iris vessels Ans:A 86. In which of the following conditions bilateral inferior subluxation of lense is seen ? A. Ocular trauma B. Marfan’s syndrome C. Homocystinuria D. Hyperlysinemia Ans:C 87. Most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage in adults is? A. Trauma B. Hypertension C. Diabetes D. Pathological myopia Ans:C 88. FALSE regarding phthisis bulbi is? A. Calcification of the lens B. Thickened sclera C. Size of the globe is reduced D. I.O.P is increased Ans:D 89. A physician diagnosed a new case of Type 2 DM. What is the correct time to refer the patient for ophthalmologic examination ? A. As early as possible B. After 5 years C. After 10 years D. symptomatic Ans:A 90. Retinoscopy is? A. visualization of retina alone B. visualization of retina and all other posterior segment contents C. objective measurement of the refractive error of patient D. subjective measurement of the refractive error of patient Ans:C 91. Most common 2nd malignacy in survivors of retinoblastoma is? A. Optic glioma B. Thyroid cancer C. Pap CA thyroid D. Osteosarcoma Ans:D 92. Substance deposited in Band Shaped Keratopathy is? A. calcium phosphate B. magnesium phosphate C. magnesium sulphate D. Iron Ans:A 93. Corneal nerves are NOT enlarged in A. Keratoconus B. Leprosy C. Herpes simplex keratitis D. Neurofibromatosis Ans:C 94. False about Bitot spots is? A. accumulation of keratinized epithelial debris B. appear on the conjunctiva C. appear on the cornea D. develop into xerophthalmia if not treated Ans:C 96. NOT a component of SAFE strategy ? A. Surgery B. Antifungals C. Facial cleanliness D. Environmental mprovement Ans:B 97. Image produced by Indirect ophthalmoscopy is? A. Virtual, erect B. Virtual, inverted C. Real, erect D. Real, inverted Ans:D 98. Contraindication for enucleation is? A. painful, blind eye B. endophthalmitis C. Congenital cystic eye D. retinoblastoma Ans:B 99. Which is NOT a feature of 3rd Nerve palsy ? A. Ptosis B. Diplopia C. Miosis D. Outwards Deviation of eye Ans:C 100. All of the following can be seen with ocular adenoviral infection except: A. Preauricular lymphadenopathy B. large central geographic corneal erosions C. Multifocal subepithelial infiltrates D. Enlarged corneal nerves Ans:D OPHTHALMOLOGY Questions and Answers pdf Download Read the full article

Cranial Bones

The human skull includes 22 bones inclusive of the cranial bones and the facial bones. The cranial bones are accountable for developing the hollow space in which the brain is placed. These bones are present in humans as well as maximum animals together with puppies, cats and horses. This newsletter discusses about the human cranial bones, their location and functioning.

Definition of the cranial bones

The cranial bones form the human neurocranium (additionally called the braincase) that is a bony structure that surrounds and protects the brain in addition to the brain stem. The neurocranium is one of the 2 express components of an adult human cranium, the other one being the viscerocranium. Those categorical elements have exceptional embryological origins.

List and location of cranial bones

There are eight cranial bones in a human skull. Following are the places of the distinctive

Ethmoid bone (1) : it is placed on the cranium-floor, in the front of the sphenoid and underneath the frontal bone. The nontechnical area of the bone is behind the nose, at the center of the face. Frontal bone (1) : this bone is placed is placed in the forehead, on the anterior facet of the skull roof. The bone extends down and paperwork the orbit’s higher surfaces. Occipital bone (1) : it is placed at the lower back side of the head. Parietal bones (2) : these bones are determined at the posterior a part of the cranium roof, forming the pinnacle and the edges of one’s cranium. Sphenoid bone (1) : it is positioned at the back of the orbits, at the bottom of the cranium and in front of the temporal bones. The sphenoid bone consists of 2 wing-like structures and 2 pterygoid procedures that venture downwards. Temporal bones (2) : those paired bones can be located at the perimeters of 1’s skull, above and behind each ears, underneath the 2 parietal bones. The ethmoid bone, frontal bone and sphenoid bone are the three bones containing paranasal sinuses.

Article credit-skull anatomy

notes for physiology

frontal bone= in front, coronal suture=crown, sagittal suture= down the middle of the parietal, lambdoid suture= lambda, in the back (occipital bone) 

temporal bone= temple- parietal bone- above that, sphenoid bone: in the middle, touching all the other bones

-- clavicle- collarbone, connecting the shoulder blade and sternum: lateral end (closer to the center) is wider (called acromial end), medial end (away from the body midline) is called sternal end

scapula- shoulder blade/ ‘wing bone’, coracoid is the structure (like a raven’s beak) on the edge of it, it is hook-like and used to stabilize the shoulder joint-

the articular condyle has the trochlea as its medial epicondyle and the capitulum as its lateral epicondyle

olecranon- elbow bump on the ulna, antebrachial interosseous membrane connects them both but when you get to the hand, the radius is the thicker bone in the wrist, metacarpal bones are the bones connected to your knuckles, right behind your thumb is your trapezium, and then right behind that is your scaphoid bone- right behind your second finger is your trapezoid bone, which also has the scaphoid bone behind it, your third knuckle is your capitate bone, with a lunate bone behind it, your fourth and fifth fingers have your hamate bone behind them, with a triquetum after that, and the pisiform bone behind that sticking up as a lump (palm up view only)

the top of the pelvic girdle is called the iliac crest, the line underneath it is the anterior gluteal line, the hole in the pelvic girdle is called the obdurator foramen,

the femur is the thigh bone, the tibia and fibula are the shin, the fibula is the thinner one

behind your big toe is your medial cuneiform bone, with your navicular bone behind that, the trochlea of your talus behind that, and your calcaneus behind that. behind your second toe is your intermediate  cuneiform bone, also with the navicular bone behind it, and your third toe is your lateral cuneiform bone, also with the navicular bone behind it. your last two toes have your cuboid bone behind them, and the calcaneus directly behind that.  

stratum corneum is top layer, thickest, then stratum lucidum, then stratum granulosum, then stratum spinosum, then stratum germinativum, then the basal lamina

the epidermis is keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

langer’s lines are for cadavers, kraissl’s lines are for a live person- arrector pili muscles help to move hairs

medulla of hair is very center, cortex is next layer, then cuticle, then the internal root sheath, then the external root sheath, then the glassy membrane, then the connective tissue sheath

hairs grow and shed in 3 repeating cycles- hair growth cycle- anagen, 90% of follicles, 2-5 year growth period, atrophying follicle (catagen, 2-3 weeks), and quiescent resting follicle (telogen, 1-3 months) normal hair loss is 50 or so a day, more than 100 indicates pathology- basal cell carcinoma- least dangerous, in stratum basale, dangerous if it invades dermis- squamous cell carcinoma- keratinocytes in stratum spinosum, can be lethal if it spreads to lymph nodes-malignant melanoma- melanocytes of a preexisting mole  

lamellae- layer, plate, or membrane 

trabeculae- the spongy-things in spongy bone - the endosteum covers the outside of the trabeculae inside the bone, while the periosteum covers the outside of the bone- if they’re damaged wound healing is slower 2/3 of bone weight is calcium phosphate, 1/3 is proteins- an osteocyte is a mature bone cell that maintains the bone matrix, osteoblast secretes organic components of matrix, osteoclast breaks it down- ends (epiphyses) of bone are more spongy while shaft of bone (diaphysis) is more compact- metaphysis is the section in between them- orientation of trabeculae in the epiphyses show where the stresses come from- endosteum has an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer and it isolates and protects the bones- before six weeks of development the skeleton is cartilage- bones grow outward by growing around blood vessels to form osteons,  parathyroid hormones stimulate osteoclasts and resorptive capacity of osteoblasts,  calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts an achondroplastic dwarf is someone with a short stature but normal sized head and trunk- long bones of the limbs stop growing- due to mutation- a dwarf with normal proportions is due to a pituitary gland malfunction, comminuted fractures- shatter bone into fragments- transverse fractures break a shaft bone across its long axis, spiral fractures are produced by twisting stresses that spread across the length of the bone, displaced fractures= bones are out of alignment, epiphyseal fractures occur where matrix is undergoing calcification & chondrocytes are dying, can permanently stop growth if not carefully treated- osteopenia = normal to 2 SD below the norm, osteoporosis, greater than 2 SD below the norm- process in bone= any projection or bump, ramus= an extension of a bone making an angle to the rest of the structure- with processes formed where tendons or ligaments attach, trochanter= large, rough projection, tuberosity= rough projection, tubercle= small, rounded projection, crest= prominent ridge, line=low ridge, spine=a pointed process, condyle= smooth rounded articular process (not to be confused with head) trochlea=smooth grooved articular process shaped like a pulley, facet= small flat articular surface, fossa= shallow depression, sulcus= narrow groove, foramen= hole for blood vessels/nerves, fissure= elongated cleft, meatus/canal= passageway through a bone, sirius/antrum= chamber within a bone filled with air, osteon= cylindrical structures inside a bone with blood vessels in the middle cartilage-> bone development works like this: chondrocytes (cartilage cells) in the middle of the cartilage grow larger and then die, leaving holes- blood vessels grow around the edge of the cartilage and the perichondrium becomes the periosteum-> blood vessels go into the periosteum and fibroblasts come in with them and turn into osteoblasts and start making spongy bone which spreads out from the shaft (diaphysis) towards both ends (as this is happening the diaphysis starts getting remodeled from spongy bone to thicker bone), and then blood vessels and fibroblasts start going into the epiphysis to start making bone from there

synarthroses- immovable joints-  diarthroses- freely movable joints, often found at the end of bones, amphiarthroses- slightly movable joints, often created when two bones are connected by relatively long tissue fragments,  articular cartilages are on the ends of synovial joints (diarthroses) but they don’t touch each other- the synovial fluid helps to cushion them- structural classification of synovial joints: plane joints- biaxial, multi- triaxial, hinge joints- monoaxial, pivot joints- rotational movements- temporomandibular joint (TMJ) in jaw- the stylomandibular ligament is attached to the styloid process, the sphenomandibular ligament= sphenoid bone to mandible, the lateral ligament and the articular capsule are really close to each other, right below the two processes that connect in the jaw- for the vertebrae, they have an anterior longitudinal ligament (goes along the spine), an interspinous ligament (in-between the spines of the vertebrae) and a supraspinous ligament (above the spines of the vertebrae)- with the intervertebral discs, they have the anulus fibrosus on the outside and the nucleus pulposus on the inside, 

with the sternoclavicular joint, they have an anterior sternoclavicular ligament joining the sternum and the clavicle, a costoclavicular ligament below it as well as costal cartilages, and they all connect to the manubrium of the sternum, which is the top rounded part of it

for the shoulder joint, the coracoclavicular ligaments join to the coracoid process- a bursa is a fluid-filled sac, the glenoid cavity is the socket part of the shoulder’s synovial ball-and-socket joint, the acromion is another process farther out towards the shoulder on the collarbone, used in the shoulder joint

for the elbow joint,  the ulnar collateral ligament attaches to the ulna, the annular ligament connects the radius and ulna, the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle wraps around the radius, the 

depolarization- decrease in potential, membrane less negative(hill) - repolarization- return to resting potential after depolarization- hyperpolarization- increase in potential, membrane more negative

 depolarization spreads from original area to other inactive areas (positive charge spreads out and away & gets weaker as it does so) (graded potentials)

action potentials are brief, sharp, and lead to-- ok the book explains this like they slowly get more positive by like +5 or + 10mV but once they reach the threshhold potential they get really positive really fast ~+30mv or something- however unlike graded potentials action potentials have a specific time they last (about ~1msec) resting potential is closer to potassium’s -90 than sodium’s +60-

how action potentials work: at resting potential both potassium and sodium channels are closed: na+ channels open at threshhold and then  THAT causes the explosive depolarization: at the peak na+ channels close, k+ channels open and let k+ flow out (the reason it causes hyperpolarization is because k+ channels cannot close immediately on a return to resting potential)