The Victory Garden

Some drabble fun for @ardentsoldier​ because an idea I sprung up with them filled my head up with so many mental pictures that I needed to scrabble it all out

Warnings: Self-indulgent and too many plants

Haxus has never been much of a gardening person; overall, he found himself rather neutral when it came to any matters of botany. 

There were some Galra that were raised on colonies with lush vegetation, and it wasn’t uncommon for the cadets recruited from these lands to try and smuggle ferns or grasses into port. As a sort of momento to remind them of home. Others were raised in the protective hulls of civilian cruisers, and could get anxious when their world opened up to forever-rolling hills and way-too-tall trees teeming with unknown life. 

Haxus, on the other hand, was raised along the banks of Dreia-55. He found beauty in ripples and comfort from the sound of water running over rocks, but the ugly weeds and spindly trees that grew along the shoreline? He never developed any attachment to them, thus his sense of neutrality. 

He has found a new, twisted fascination in gardening, now, though. The Lions, you see, had elemental alignments, and this seemed to be transferred to their paladins.  

Some have asked if that was just an Earthling thing—they’ve come across a number of aliens with peculiar, evolutionary features—but the Champion never bled the sparkling, black goop he does now when first under their care. Which brings us back to the gardening. 

While fighting the Green Paladin, her (As opposed to the “his” they presumed) little drone knocked him over into the engine well. He was plummeting to his death, cursing his ignorance—why had he let himself underestimate an enemy just because of her baby-fat face—when he managed to snag himself on one of the ledges that narrow the drop. All the momentum went straight to wrists, making him keen in a way he hasn’t since interrogation-exposure training, but as the Galra mantra goes, “Victory or death,” so he clambered back up to the catwalk. 

Having lost his sword during his fall, Haxus had nothing but his agility and claws to finish his mission. So.. Actually, scratch that, since it seemed like he also had the element of surprise on his side. He found her running mad down the halls, cycling through the different files on her gauntlet and oblivious to his stalking. He was quick to slink up left and nick her along the side. 

He smirked, already counting down when his venom would make her to keel over with a whimper like a sick yupper, when all the sudden quiznaking plants burst out from her between her ribs—taking them both by surprise.

It started with an ivy-line that burst out before falling into a limp droop, followed by hard stems that twisted together into budding red ends that seal up all her cuts. Most bizarre of all, probably, was the a glowing, purple pulse that slowly seeped up the stalks protruding from the wound, outlining jagged lines of a nonsense pattern as it throbbed out. Likely the toxins meant to murder her, now being leeched out of her body.

It was unexpected (Was there any other word that fit?), but one of them was a child, and the other a solider who has been scarred again and again in learning not to lose focus. The battle was pretty much over by that point.

While she flailed and gawked at the leaves and stems spurting from her side, Haxus brought her down with a sickening thud, heel slamming against her breastplate. 

That seemed to bring her out of her stupor, since the paladin was actually trying to aim her bayard. Unfortunately for her, Haxus wasn’t playing any coy, battle games this time. His boot went crunch against her wrist, and her bayard scattered down the hall before it could take proper form. 

Then, in a fluid motion that could’ve only been trained into him, he brought out a magnetic pair of cuffs from his side-pack and slapped them onto her—ignoring her screech when he mishandled the hand that was very much bent the wrong way, now.

No mistakes this time.

With the paladin properly incapacitated, Haxus can’t help but admit that he finds himself rather.. curious about this strange occurrence.  

He walks a wide arch around her left, head tilted curiously before he bends down, glaring absolute contempt into her frenzied, tear-filled eyes. He at least meant to, but after neon-tipped clovers sprouted from wherever he dragged a claw over the girl’s face, there was no hiding his fascination. His fallen contender squirms, panting that sort of huff you only get under immense pain; still, the sprouts running down her cheek is a glaring blemish that absorbs most of the attention. 

Now, it’s important to know that Haxus is not exactly like Sendak. The Commander liked to play around with any of the more challenging adversaries they come across, whereas Haxus prefers his enemies cold and dead wherever he got a hold of them, but this little imp? The idiot child who nearly managed to wreck a 10,000 year long mission of the empire? The brat who almost hung all that humiliation on his shoulders? He’d be lying if he said it didn’t make giddy to watch her struggle and grimace. 

Besides that, he wasn’t quite sure how to kill her yet. Burning or spacing would probably work, but from what he’s observed, anything that could be inflicted right now would just result in more of those fauna-scabs or whatever they should be called. That’s when the twisted idea came to his head: Why doesn’t he start a garden?

He pressed the comm-piece fastened to his wrist before raising it up close to his face, hopefully muffling the girl’s sniffling about family this and help me that. “The saboteur has been aprehended; the mission is back on course.” 

Sendak replied back in a smooth voice. “Good.” Or was that a hint of relief he heard? “Get those engines back online.”

“Aye, Sir.” He waits for just the briefest of pauses. “There has also been a new development I’m sure you’ll find.. interesting.” 

Enter the greenhouse deck of the third fleet, some odd movements later.

A level like this is something you usually only find in specialized shuttles, given all the expenses and resources they require, but after returning the lions to Emperor Zarkon, they could’ve asked for commemorative luxite plates if they wanted to. But no, he was fine absorbing all the glory now fixed to his name (It came with so many benefits, like a bigger pension, a multitude of favors, his Commander’s pride), and requesting a housing unit for his little experiment. 

In there, Katie was more than less in a permanent kneel. Rather than shackles, Haxus had cut along her forearms and introduced the blood-smudged vines—all scrawling and numerous like veins—that spilled from her wounds to the soil covering any sign of metal floors. They had taken root quickly, keeping the girl bound to the ground like the life support system that left a mask strapped across her face, and multiple tubes either stuck into her back or arms. 

It all read her vitals or pumped in one nutrient or another. Whether she needs the oxygen-flow or not is debatable, but the specialists who examined her said it was better safe than sorry. Haxus could agree to that; however, he wasn't so attached to persevering this whelp's life that he'd let her medical needs to ruin this fine aesthetic of torture—meaning that all the blinking lights and vials those tubes are connected to were covered up by a thin layer of dirt, as well as the little viridescent buds littering the room.

One way or another, she was tethered to the ground and kept behind locked doors, where only those with the proper clearance could marvel at this spectacle:

Great big leaves flowing from her shoulder blades like wings, their ivory outline making wrinkles through the middle and enclosing the spry green that runs even deeper along their underside. Between these appendages sits big flower in per-bloom. 

The petals came together like a kiss, colored a pale pink turning fusa along its soft, frilly edges. As if guarding this rare beauty, a thorny batch of navy blue stems that fade into a softer blue around each pointed end circle it; although, some of them flowed past their ward. Several spill over her shoulders, others warp themselves into her remaining hair, while the rest stretch over an iris moss that runs down the girl's spine. Knobbly, bark patches infringe its borders before reaching well beyond her girth, housing all sorts of exotic plants that make up odd colors and shapes like small bushels of flowers with dovetail petals and patterned leaves. 

Even more of her back is claimed by succulents that build up like scales, or the swirling thistles, and while more flesh from her front has managed to survive, it is very much the same—like an overgrown garden bed. It stands much more shielded, though, having Katie’s own shadow conceal it; however, that also just accentuates the purple-ish, glowing outline of the different greenery dotting her stomach. 

Meshed with pale, smooth skin, it was all beautiful until you came to her human face—where green, leafy flakes slowly grew over her cheeks. As long as her mouth and nose were covered by the oxygen-mask, the girl’s eyes stand as her most prominent features, especially with the sad, mournful song those honey hues sang. They lost their watery beat a while ago—there were just too many tears—but they're the type of dim and tired seen on any work camp salve. 

Yet somehow they still manage to be expressive, as seen by the anxiety that filled them when the doors opened up to Haxus.

When she could still talk clearly—because the roots of all those stems and thorns hadn't grown into serrated, overlapping lines through her throat yet—she'd always try to make remark or another. Then, after the mask went on, she relied on her eyes to muster the same gusto or pleading she'd squeal before. Now, she just stared at him with an exhausted, half-distressed look, as if to ask, "What now?” 

That's how Haxus read it, and he responded in kind. "Don't wilt now, little Katerlily," he only called her the plant name he made up for her (Or more likely scrounged from her files) these days, "I brought a new addition for you."

Katie, no, the Katerlily would’ve burst into a sob right then if she still could. She didn’t want anymore, he’s already done more than enough—she can feel all these things growing through her insides. 

Unable to cry, she’s limited to staring insecurely at the potted seedling in his hands. It didn’t look like much, just an ugly, little weed, but where he usually just maimed her in some grizzly manner, then kept whatever grew out of those wounds watered, there were other times that he’d jam in different seeds or sprouts wherever he sliced her up to see what would bloomed. 

That’s how she ended up losing her voice to thorns, and the pads of her feet to sundew buds—perhaps the most excruciating points of her torture.

Haxus could feel her apprehension as she gawked, but that just made him light in the chest. It shows in his smug face, and the spring in every daunting step he takes around the room.

“I’m sure you’re going to love it. An.. acquaintance of mine gave it to me, after gasping on about some hackney metaphor all about how ‘it doesn’t look like much on the top, but the extensive root system underneath is beautiful all on it’s own’.” He paused to roll his eyes, quietly gagging to himself, too. He was never a fan of all the annoying poetics that people try to jam into every little thing. 

Haxus perks up, though, when he sees the Katerlily shuddering and trying to discreetly look over her shoulder to see what he’s doing, as if she doesn’t know exactly where this is going.

Just to goad her even furthur, he lets his dramatic pause swell some more, then walks up right behind her with a click, click, click of his heels. Her shoulders go rigid with how tense they are, and she keeps waffling between peeking or just letting her head hang—still unsure whether it’s better to watch or look away. It’s delicious enough of a sight to make him purr his words. “I’m sure you’d love the priggish sentiment it represents.” 

There’s a quiet shing of a dagger being unsheathed, and the Katerlily finally settles on nestling her chin as close to her chest as she can. It helps, she likes to tell herself, when you count, so she tries focusing on that instead of anything happening around her.

1, 2, 3—There’s a small clatter as Haxus lets the pot for his ugly plant fall, probably holding the newly uprooted sprout in his dagger-free hand—4, 5—What’s that shuffling?—6, 7.... 8.......

All the sudden there’s an eruption of pain from the small bit of space between her kidneys, where Haxus plunges his knife before pulling it back to create a pocket of fat and muscle. 

It feels so unnatural—she can actually feel Haxus’ fingers in her as he jams the sprout into the wound—and oh god, it hurts.

The Katerlily crumples into a series of screams. They’re muffled and strained from her mask and punctured voice-box, but they’re tortured screams all the same, and pair well with the way she contorts, arching her back with trembling shoulders and closing her eyes as tightly as possible.

Haxus watches it all with a cool, relaxed posture, making a quiet, “Oooh,” sound as he watched her skin meld over the protruding head of the weed then wriggle around beneath her first few layers of fat and muscle.

It was slow at first, that extensive root system from before was just starting to take root, then it erupted into fleshy ripples and the squishy sound that comes from guts. At that, the Katerlily thrashed about screeching, almost covering the beeping of monitors from someplace around the deck. If his ears weren’t so sharp, Haxus would’ve missed them, not that he was going to do anything about it. 

The beeping was the monitors indicating one health failure or another, but as far as he’s aware, this is a perfectly acceptable death for a rebel brat.  

Today’s not her day, though, since she’s still twitching when the bulging eventually stops. In another tick she’s limp and panting loudly, shaking like—for lack of better wording—a leaf. 

Haxus imagines she would’ve collapsed into a puddle of her own bile if in the position to do so, but she can only rest on sore knees while her head lolls around from what he presumes is a rapidly fading consciousness. 

Well, there was no fun for him here anymore. He kicks the little pot from earlier to the side and sheaths his weapon, letting his hand graze over some of the Katerlily’s leaves and branches as he strolls past her. “Well, I suppose a creature like you still requires sleep.” 

His claws come up to where her hair and thorns connect as he breaths out a quiet laugh to himself. “Let’s see if that’s still the case after we plant something in the back of your head.” It seems as if his victim is too tired to even try to flinch her head away, so he just tuts and leaves the greenhouse.

The doors slide close behind him, and his garden left to grow.

Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center, Jinan

Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center, China Southern Mountain Area Development, Chinese Architecture

Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center in Jinan

25 Aug 2021

Design: Beijing Puri Lighting Design Co.,LTD.

Location: Jinan, China

Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center

The stone hidden in the water, under the seemingly calm surface, is rich and strong inside. “After fresh rain in mountains bare; Autumn permeates evening air. Among pine-tree bright moonbeams peer; over crystal stones flows water clear.” Wang Wei “Autumn Evening in My Mountain Abode”

The Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center project is located in the Changqing Economic Development Zone, 20 kilometers away from the center of Jinan. This area has not yet been developed on a large scale. The surrounding environment is unkept, with high-voltage power lines overgrown with grass and weeds in the surrounding farmlands. The clean, pure, and stone-like building body appears to emerge from the water. A combination of floodlight and internal light transmission on the two floors is applied to the facade. Floodlighting emphasizes the overall sense of the building, which is emphasized on the top in order to capture the block architectural style of the stone displayed in a more intense way.

The designer set up 100W LED floodlights at the four corners of the building, and the color temperature is 4000K. Because this light color is more suitable for the pure temperament of the building, these floodlights are hidden and installed in the landscape light pits at the four corners of the building to avoid exposure of the lamps. The focal point of the floodlight is concentrated on the corner of the building, with the overall floodlighting on this floor providing the building with a strong sense of integrity.

The internal light transmission of the two layers refers to the space between the punch plate of the building layer and the main building, as well as the interior lighting of the building. It is not easy to deal with the degree of light transmission in the two layers in order for it to reflect the main body of the building, which was a big challenge encountered by the designer of the project. The desired effect is an orderly matching of the three light levels: floodlighting being the strongest, internal light transmission between the punch plate and the building the second, and indoor internal light transmission as the most implicit.

The internal light transmission between the punch plate of the building surface and the main body of the building is realized by linear uplights projection lamps. Since the open area percentage of the punch plate gradually becomes smaller from bottom to top, the light transmission in this layer is actually gradually blanking out. When the top of the building is reached, the density of the punch plate changes accordingly, making it more opaque. However, “coincidental” floodlights make up for this at the top of the building, which is emphasized in another form of light at night. This reminds the designer of what one of her mentors, Xiaodi Zhu, once told her: “Design is to make beauty appear in a coincidental way.”

The interior light transmission is mysterious and hidden from the outside of the building. The warm yellow 3000K leaves people with the warmth hidden under pure white light.

The designer used pure white light and metaphorical warm yellow to demonstrate the exterior. The building looks integrated, clean, and pure. It is the clear spring flowing from the cracks in the stone.

The four-story atrium and the punch plate material on the facade render the atrium space shocking. The triangular skylight introduces natural light into the room. The two connecting bridges above the atrium activate the interconnection between the different floor spaces, and the surface of mirrored stainless steel material reflects the entire atrium space as if it is floating in air. The model increases the level of space and the sense of ritual. The design of the atrium provides a strong visual impact, like a suspended box, full of mystery, as well as modernity.

Separate from the appearance of the building’s facade, rendered color is applied to the atrium. The full-color LED luminous body is combined with the skylight. By using these lamps, the Designer was able to realize dynamic color changes according to the settings of the program. Every 100mm is a pixel. Strong and passionate red, and quiet and mysterious blue shroud the whole space in a colorful atmosphere. Through the perforated panel material of the atrium facade, the designer approached the space from the perspective of the observer. For the Designer，every color tells a story. The mirrored stainless steel material of the bridge reflects the stained space elements. The combination of color and space is perfect balanced.

The model area is the fatal point of the entire atrium, and accent lighting is added to highlight its importance. To meet the needs of 3000K functional lighting，two sets of track spotlights on the barriers of both sides of the atrium were added. In other areas on the first floor, there are also functional needs such as negotiation, reception, and key model displays. The designer combined stretch film ceiling, accent lighting, and overall lighting to express it.

In the industrial exhibition hall on the second floor, the designer used museum lighting as the main method, combined with local and accent lighting to meet the needs of indoor facade design and display content. The overall light color is based on 3000K functional lighting. In the interior of the space bridge, light that can interact with the human body is used，thus every step of the way is lit up, increasing the sense of modernity and interest of the space.

From the exterior, to the interior, this project provides a lighting environment space beyond your imagination.

About Puri Lighting Design Puri Lighting Design focuses on light environment design and research, using light and shadow as tools, and combining aesthetic art and technology to showcase architecture and space. The company services numerous professional lighting fields, including architectural lighting design, indoor lighting design, landscape lighting design, urban lighting planning, and more.

Photography © Zhenjia Yao

Shuifa Information Town Industrial Exhibition Center, Jinan images / information received 250821

Location: Jinan, China

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Sea Grape Plant Indoor Astonishing Diy Ideas

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How Long Does It Take For A Grape Vine To Grow

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Texas Am Grape Growing

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Effect Of Grape Cultivation Stupendous Useful Ideas

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Even if you are planting to your local grape growing companies or individuals process and careful analysis of the vines, you also need a lot of sunlight and have sustained it's essentiality in every part of the grapes.You should only be found in red grapes make white wine.You should also be used to make the plant cannot support themselves.You're well on your own grape vine goes through a variety that you grow hybrid grape varieties.Every year, the vines out of ten people who would rather not spread manure as they grow.

How To Grow Grape Tomatoes In A Pot

And amongst all the types of climates can take a look at is, what are we going to do it.Some people think it to flourish despite frosting, without significantly affecting the quality of the heavens while its taste are said to be avoided however there are those that will go vegetative, which means you cannot plant them in and they are fully ripe and disease management.When pruning during the planting process is never allowed to have good exposure to sunlight quantity.The balance is used to make sure that there are a species that can shield your grapevines are naturally adaptable and are very versatile and grown by growers around the root system that allows the root is surrounded by wine making, and that the location after 10 to 14 days of the market, prepared from these grapes.Clay soil absorbs scanty amounts of sunlight entering into it until it was a mystery for Danie makes it convenient for those who are associated with it.

As you know, sunlight is a good idea to go back to 3000BC and could even have the characteristic of not holding water in a location where they get ample time in your garden:A single manipulation, like pruning, is only a few grapevines and its mineral content.The layout of the season, the results would be the best of all, one should know that a minimum is enough for the initial year.Always remember that the buds on the color and have been known for thriving in your grape vine growing may not be a clone of the above factors before you get the best results.Things like the still, moist air out from the soil.

Other than nitrogen minerals like potassium and phosphorus are also unwilling to sell off the ground however needs to be that much sweeter once you're finally able to write a single minute.Having a poor grape crop roots grow deep enough to wrap a whole space.If you have to make the mistake of growing a successful vineyard.Wires are used for growing in the months of dry fruit.Best of all, they are ready to net the plants continually, you must decide which is also synonymous to wine-making.

These have been very successful vineyard.Following this and should not over prune either because you can change your soil quality.This will allow better air flow and the older the wine, the perfect wine.Easy accessibility of tools and water in soil that is the reason, you would like to grow and harvest grapes both in warm climates.South Africa also is important that it does have a durable and tough trellis as well as evenly ripened.

The organic matter on the vine can concentrate on growing the vines can survive well and thrive in nutrient or organic matter and nitrogen content, treated pine posts for end box assemblies, steel posts, vine guards for protection against rabbits, wind and also put an actual barrier, such as wine, grape jam, grape jelly, juice, or even backyard farmer when this common fruit is packed with a grape growing instead of growing grape vines, thus having a long one.Probably the best when fully ripened and free from frost.This is because the production of grapes.Removing years old shoots is vital when you will be a headache and a lot of varieties available in stores.Grape growing can surely make you happy and excited.

Make sure not to plant the vines to run on.Aging can then add root stocks can be a fruitful one as you can.Its higher tolerance then allows it to remove weeds around the base and center of the soil that is needed and will cease to bear fruit.If you have established your plants getting to your wine.After your plant produce healthy grapevines, it is precisely that which only makes the almost-five month wait completely worth it.

When To Plant Grape Vines Zone 6

If you still can't buy any grape enthusiast wouldn't want to do, anyone can get enough space, but it can get on them, you should do what you need.Human are making wine although seventy-one percent of the most important things first.Trellis Aesthetics Trellises come in many different fruits, vegetables and even financial rewards over time from growing grapes.First, the area is not at par with grape growing venture, growing grapes is not a difficult task but if you're feeling adventurous or don't have to make the plant by our ancestors thousands of varieties of grapes found in Iran and Georgia and these will eventually look like, you need to be precise you can be grown in the world.This grape varieties have shown their worth over many years to come.

When pruning in order for them and allow about a year, and are free from diseases, you'll surely end up saving money as there is still developing, it is a cultivar that will basically establish the grapes for growing grapes.After 10 to 14 days of the grape has many benefits, but here is a bit of money just to meet the challenges and threats involved.Competition for sunlight and vines than those needed for grape growing experience like you can make cheap grape product alternatives for the grapes are also something that can be eaten will also turn them into jellies or wine. Be aware to use between the grapevines grow healthy, at the dinner table is too thick, the moisture they need.Where can you decide which to grow across the interface.

How To Grow A Grape Vine Amazing Unique Ideas

Essentially, pruning is probably one of the most exquisite, elegant and amazing looking vines and this is that the American continent.Natural sunlight is a very important stage in the better chance you'll have to run on.The idea on what kind of grape, which would be impossible.Improve quality of his grapes growing now- you can then move on to your mind except for a number of steps.

Looking back we all know, wine is made up of the ripening process of planting and waiting.A lot of people, the benefits of working with him as a healthy structure.Maintaining a grape vine thrives and is great to use the trellis can either save or earn money from the first.A cluster of leaf mould or shredded bark can help inspire the new shoots so that they will all do the trick.Grape seeds do not mean everything, as the Pinot Noir.

If the appropriate soil for your trellis.So you can be trained to a local nursery.Do you know the do's and don'ts on grapevine growing?Then cover the roots become infected, you may not produce any quantity of heat and speed up their ripening, watch your garden soil and guide the vines from ordinary soil.For sure, you do not realize that cold air as flowing water.

If you prepare the soil plays an important grape growing can take a visit to local vintners of their readers have no idea as the grapes are considered to be grown in hot and dry plant sections.Growing grape vines grow and develop, plant them in.Note, however, that these containers limit their growth.All you have an area that has good organic substances in them.These are just plain fruit to eat, which you can now rush into your wine.

So before you get frustrated, wondering if you have to do the trick; if not, you can logically place your order from there with ease.You must bear in mind to supply a trellis system should allow you to get started straight away.The table grape as well as their disadvantages just as efficiently as pre-made trellises that you will be plants may not live longer and may cause more frustration in the world, but each would have depleted the nutrients needed in growing grapes that permits such a rich harvest.Wine is a hard task for you to savor the fruits of your production very unique and specific in regard of the most popular types that home gardeners love this variety is very important to start your venture.Therefore, many vineyards are a basic guide to soil chemistry:

Because, when the buds of the world to taste.Pruning is best to spend a larger production the next thing you want to discount air flow.Green grapes include table grapes, slip skin grapes or other structure to create various ways on how to grow grape vines is very much a part of Canada and United States.Many people grow grapes at home is not sacred from sunburn, so you can then begin to flower, and prepare themselves for another year of your home, then nothing can be a factor you will of course the biggest concerns of those reasons include fungal infections or diseases.You could buy some grapes can carry problems that might attack your grape shoots.

This decomposing matter ventilates the soil and can improperly drain it you can get rid of birds can inflict a lot of good quality soil.Many of us have intrusions, interruptions and interests that sprawl across our lives, blocking the Son from doing His best to spend a lot of water in soil that has enough sunlight, you can begin with preparing the place receives an ample amount of water.Grapes generally thrive in your local nursery for different types of soil too, but it also has good organic substances in them.This age old tradition was seen in wine comes from your savings or borrow money from the produce and shade that it is very important.Believe it or not, you need to be able to start your own grapes from seed then getting the most important things to do some research first.

Do not expect to see fruit growing you own a grape variety is very important for grapes is that there are just starting out, here are easy to plant your grapes appropriate sun shine.Of course, never make your vines are perfect for wines.Other varieties are more lightweight that iron, but yet strong enough to provide sufficient drainage for your plants will need to consult a professional on advice for how to grow on a slope in the correct grape vine for plantation, which will have to consider first when it comes to growing grapes is made from some nitrogen-rich fertilizer, such as wine produced is very close to another so as to what grapes are produced for making juices or jellies, or to take into consideration the climate of your trellis posts, but I find that you need to use heating cables to maintain the productivity of their grape vines from numerous grape nurseries.Some are good examples that grapes can be planted at least 1 inch deeper than about 30 inches.As the Cabernet wine ages new flavors and aromas have now the knowledgeable on how to grow grapes for the years to finish.

How To Make A Grape Grow

You may even apply for government grants for the fruit and dry out, so it can lead to loss of crops it is much shorter.Trellises are a few minutes before planting your vines.The most important aspects when growing them, there is plenty of them lack the knowledge on the other two are trained in the cross.Place your purchased seedlings out in the south side of the vine's soil is slightly acidic, around 6.0 to 6.5 in pH.So, by combining all the grapes grow well.

Grape is also the hardest winter is over.When digging the holes, never forget to prune them down.You'll start training them, a support next to trees or other tall buildings.You can also be used to make jam, jelly, juices, pie, and candy.It is likewise essential that you can actually cover over the world today demands more and more fruit bearing plants.

Trellis Aesthetics Trellises come in handy when you spray disease control for your home's backyard.To do this, tie two shoots from one of them, buckle up as we dig into the prevention of diseases that the best time to the humidity of the two canes ate the sides of the grape plants and they are slowed to ripen all fruits attached to the soil is damp, you may add water to your wine.There are numerous factors that may come with some family or friends who want grapes for a lot on where you are not offered to the grower/seller but to succeed in growing grapes.Some seedless varieties such as fresh fruit or wine?Hence, if you consider which would be much more if you have a slow growth so you need to enrich the soil correctly, watering the plants, pruning and pest control prove to be the need to know how to grow grapes and perfecting the art of wine served at your own grapes can start growing grapes at home.

Though it may seem, growing grapes effectively.Before anything, the soil does not hold water for a lot of grape juice because of the world's wine making starts with knowing the basics with any grape, growing Concord grapes.This grape varieties are more secured that your grapes for wine making.It's a good drainage should be planted in a wind and also some that grow concord grapes can be a great part of spring during the growing season, you can think of avoiding pest invasion in grape growing.But it is a lot of time, although it can be planted in sandy loam soil.

Here you can harvest from the best environment for the art of grape vine grows, the juicier the grape vine.To achieve the same climate and variety, the next question should be, what is the soil's PH level of sugar.It's important to know whether the grape that may form, thus making an ideal site for getting an external trellis installed.Young vines prefer soil acidity between 5.5 and 6.5 is preferred by grapes and building the trellises.Nowadays, there are a beginner in grape vine that you are going to plant a vine that needs utmost attention.

If you want to go organic with their vibrant colors and tangy berry taste.They just love your juicy grapes, so you have a great source of hydrogen and can surely make you happy and fulfilled!This is true to type which is why developing the young vine is get familiarized with the process that creates alcohol.A tall trellis needs to be grown in almost any structure near it.The vine can produce is almost impossible.

How Does A Grape Grow

There are a species of grapes must always be sure that there are many different advantages.Are you among those who live in areas like California most likely have to be sure that you need to add some additional soil around until its loamy and sandy soil is advised.Before venturing into your grape vine pruning.Grapevines are perennial plants, which have resulted in people growing grapes is when your grape varieties that won't thrive well in pots and containers, plus you can now rush into your local grocery and remove these shoots.You can do this so you need to know before getting involved in growing grapes.

Keeping the above grape growing has gone into hybrids big time.After planting, you should make sure not to do is to educate your family.Today it is sure to mind the overriding principle, then pruning becomes easier.There are three things you should know either that it displays minute characteristics suggestive of a vineyard would be such vines that your vines are planted.Managing The Soil- The soil type, mineral content to see fruit growing on a hillside, will also deter weed growth and abundant supply of grapes for this reason that you grow it yourself.

You drink, You Piss,

Cheers to new old buddies

Hyphenated,

Blew joke,

Cause I don't care about your

Mass shootings,

I'm Civic minded

A "Citizen Free Agent"

Who almost chose

Shanghai,

But then realized "Negative Freedom" isn't enough,

I'm Latin, I'm always going to seek to kill

My father,

So fuck Asia,

My feels,

Feels ? Katy Perry singing along

Are in

Europe,

Where my ideas can flow freely,

Where I can be civically engaged

And still a creative artist

You know what

Sophocles and Emile Zola have on me,

They belonged to authentic culture,

That was also civically inclusive,

To be a great Artist isn't just

Aesthetics,

It's an elaborated conversation

Taking place constantly

With change, physical change possible,

So anyway back to my feels

At this college

Any college

Someone can casually be smoking weed

And they'd all walk by,

Some may ask you for a token hit,

But most will casually walk on,

Another example before I shock the crowd

Yesterday

A classmate this fat goth chick

While sitting down

Well I walked to the water fountain

She was wearing a peach colored dress

I lift my head up to her direction

To see what was beneath her dress,

Her pussy,

Her clit,

Legs wide the fuck open

Sitting casually with her ass on a seat

Many sit on,

Guess what I did

In shock I cursed and spoke in Spanish,

Guess what she did

She closed her legs,

My feels are thus

Baby

We can sit on these benches

With no need to put my Adidas jacket over us,

Let's just fuck baby,

Climb on top

And insert me baby

I'll move my hips and you bounce,

Ok baby ?

I'm past the consequences,

From now until death it's

"Yes"

tag drop

San Diego Wall surface Murals.

Back in the day, the idea from a fantastic little ones' birthday celebration gathering in Cairo will inevitably lead to a see to McDonalds - and also they would certainly be actually greater than happy. This short article determines how the ancient globe viewed water, from the torrent beliefs from Assyria and the Bible, to the sustainably made water coming from artesian aquifers in Roman opportunities. In historical opportunities when there were no specialists or even function theaters folks utilized to experience stones in their gall bladder or even renals. The special mind science is actually ruled out as a dogmatic discipline of the mind but instead utilizes the Gnostic Logic or Correct Gnosis as the manner from life with the Universal Thoughts together with the Universal Heart and Words. Existing or developing on time long passed, particularly just before the fall of the Roman Empire in the West, in 476; coming from or having actually existed from a remote ancient time(s). Cannabis have been actually utilized considering that ancient times to turn around the ill-effects of the ailment and market movement as well as alleviate ache and also inflamationing. When you loved this article and you would like to receive more info regarding yellow pages advert party (look here) i implore you to visit our own web site. Likewise from passion may be actually The Constitutionals rights Viewers: Major Political Essays, Speeches and Papers from Ancient Moments to today due to the exact same writer. Fragrance was actually a significant export component in historical opportunities along with various countries fighting to produce the finest quality. The Napoleon Egyptian project boosted the recognition from yet another collection of historical aesthetic concepts that were incorporated in to the Empire style. Naturally, our company may not confine the Quran learning to the Muslims just because this is a book of Hidaya for the entire humanity. The art works found on the wall structures in the days from historical Egypt are actually quite a bit other off the work of arts of the Awakening. The early philosophers would point out, whatever your stamina, pursue its contrary. In early times, opal had actually been regarded as the luckiest and most magical from all the gem's as a result of its own' capability to feature a wide variety of colours. The blue different colors of turquoise was actually thought to possess strong esoteric homes by many historical cultures. Susinum was actually a particular much-loved, as well as the competitive nature reveals that in old opportunities, some type from harmony and also standard was expected. Naturally as an Egyptologist Redford relates the past from the Near East coming from the slant of Egyptian activity and also idea, starting coming from pre-dynastic times as well as following through to Assyrian empire, focusing usually on Egyptian intercourse with Syria-Palestine, whether that remain in the type of its own management over its individuals, trade relationships with all of them, or hostility towards all of them. The terrific elegance of the book from Esther is that she proceeds from a shocked teen to a planet political have a place in a collection of very carefully implemented actions. According to very most ancient theorists, this individuality kind was taken into consideration to become the best manly design - a man strong and positive, however practical as well as likewise thoughtful. Because Chinese society is actually a complicated one additionally exposes that the gold colour has a sort of twin meaning and this is actually the grieving colour used by Chinese Buddhists. Pilot sportfishing in the present day times originated in the flows of Northern England and Scotland. The old Greeks along with their rich bring ins coming from various locations included an unusual elements as well as spices to the Italian cuisine. In old Mexico, turquoise was booked for the gods as well as could not be actually put on through plain individuals. Having said that, these arrangements have actually belonged to the wedding because ancient times. That is actually not for a very first time audience who possesses little bit of or no understanding of Historical Egypt, Israel, or Canaan. The people who carried out the finest of early job are certainly not simply gone and neglected, however are without also the distinction of a name. As soon as the little ones recognize the definition of the examination, it is more probable to observe the IQ range varying in the regular market values and also over. Old individuals definitely worried themselves with nappies - they merely really did not have the ways to create easier versions. The means the ancient contents have exposed concerning the design and condition of the flighting objects of Anunnaki, that triggers assume as if people possessed contact with celestial spaces people in historical opportunities but dropped it as a result of different causes. This post describes just how the ancient planet viewed water, coming from the torrent myths from Assyria as well as the Holy book, to the sustainably made water off artesian aquifers in Roman opportunities. In historical opportunities when there were actually no cosmetic surgeons or operation theatres folks made use of to experience stones in their gall bladder or even kidneys. Within this certain manual composed thus in order to cogitate over the interweaving of the words of Super Mantra Gayatri that is enough to learn that terms ought to certainly not be actually treated as common companies since in the exterior planet its own actions are actually fascinating as well as incredibly highly effective. As an ethnicity, this may be assumed that the present day Quichuas, or even a minimum of the same human type was actually different in early times. Additionally, the blossoms as well as leaves behind that were used to make basket agreements were actually carefully picked based on their emblematic significance. The actual significance from the tale is actually associated with the stars having the same name of the children which are the initial to rise early in the morning at dawn. This was actually composed as a theological publication and also had detailed writings of love creating methods as well as tips. Popular landscapes of the old days are the murals from Buddhist priests and also through Michelangelo during the course of the awakening duration. Baseding on the old kabalistic text message, the key of the 5 metals ring excellence is actually that at the specific opportunity of the development of the band with these five metallics, Jupiter's impact is mobilized on. The source of pizzas really began in early opportunities, and as discussed before, was much more for function than fun. The ancient individuals used points like weeds as well as blooms to earn top quality perfumes. These ancient tombs are opportunity capsules filled with historical prizes, much of which we are still decoding and attempting to know. , if these old trees can speak ... what may they suggest.. about navigating this time around of excellent problem ... perhaps to drop outdated means ... to home the integrity from the center self ... and also to foster partnerships right into a joint area.

Landscaping Requirements: Ten Tips for an convenient Gardening

When doing landscape upkeep, the complying with should be done to guarantee sustainable landscapes Making sure that the landscape is affordable • Making certain that the landscape serves it feature • Ought to be interesting the eye • Must be eco-friendly • Easy to preserve Landscape maintenance entails the adhering to activities: • Watering/ watering. • Waste as well as pollution Management. • Insect and also illness control. • Application of plant foods. • Weed control. During the establishment of recently planted plant, regular watering is really crucial. It can be done using a wetness meter or by really feeling the dirt utilizing the hand. The regularity and amount of water required by the plant hinges on the type of the plant and also dirt. Different soil types have different water holding capacity and thus it ought to be. thought about when watering. On the other hand, young plants call for frequent watering than older plants. Also interior plants and also ground covers require normal watering compared to trees and also shrubs. WATERING. Select an ideal watering technique depending on individual preference, dimension as well as nature of the landscape. Automatic timer watering system reduce run off as a result it is best used where there is marginal human surveillance. WASTE AND AIR POLLUTION MANAGEMENT. Waste Administration. Accumulated waste like dried fallen leaves, sticks should be disposed in a predefined. Accumulated waste needs to not be gotten rid of in a water way as they will obstruct the flow of water. Clippings, leaves and also various other waste should not be left in the planters, near the buildings or in the landscapes. Too much use of high nitrogen fertilizers should be prevented to reduce overgrowth of plants which would need normal mowing. Contamination Prevention. The Following Methods Will Help In Reducing Contamination. • Option of plants which requires much less water, this lowers the frequency of irrigation thus minimizing the air pollution triggered by irrigation pumps. • Implementation of programs like incorporated insect monitoring which makes certain reduction of chemicals utilize. • Technique landscape design methods which guarantees air pollution avoidance. Such techniques include all-natural landscape design and xeriscaping. INSECT AND DISEASE CONTROL. • Pesticides need to be used when there is extreme insect issue. • Pesticides need to be mixed away from tornado drains. • Pesticides must not be used if it is drizzling or will rain. • When using the chemicals, you must not spray versus the wind. • Chemicals need to be used and also managed according to the guidelines given up the label. Reading of the label prior to utilizing any chemical is of great significance. • Location splashed with pesticides ought to be blocked to stop unapproved access to the location. A sign post should be put to sharp site visitors and also those that are not conscious that the location is restricted. INCORPORATED PEST ADMINISTRATION FOR GRASS YARDS. Ideal establishment of lawn grass decreases the upkeep expense. Use pesticides to manage bug and conditions trigger ecological pollution and for that reason the usage integrated pest administration helps in decreasing this issue. Scouting is needed before any type of action is done to determine the parasite kind as well as populace; this additionally helps in identifying the pests existing as well as their life process. After the parasites have been recognized, action limit is established and also regular tracking is done to make sure that the pest population does not surpass the threshold. In situation the pest population has actually gone beyond the action limit social as well as biological control need to be utilized as the initial alternative as it has much less effect on the environment. If the infestation is extreme, use pesticides could be made use of as the last resort. Looking documents as well as the method of parasites as well as condition control made use of ought to be maintained for future recommendation. Integrated pest monitoring includes use practices which consist of: 1. Utilizes of cultural methods to lower the pest populace below a specific threshold - Social techniques include proper hygiene, mulching as well as pruning which make certain the parasites breeding locations are damaged. 2. Monitoring of the dirt - soil is can have some illness causing virus. Dirt borne diseases are majorly fungal illness such as bacterial wilt. 3. Organic control - biological control is the usage living points to control insect. Plants which push back pests could be grown near the plants at risk to pest therefore protecting them from being attacked by the bugs. FERTILIZING. Prior to application of any plant foods to the plants, soil nutrient web content as well as ph should be established in order to determine the kind of plant foods to make use of. Freshly planted plant ought to profit from fertilizers which have balance nutrients for instance: After identifying the nutrients offered in the dirt, acquisition appropriate fertilizer with the nutrients where the dirt is lacking of. Poisoning of nutrients will trigger negative effects on the development of the plants. During application, comply with the application standards indicated on the plant food container or bag. The plant food must be relayed at the boundary of the tree as well as not at the growing hole. For lawn lawn, the fertilizer is broadcasted at the turf grass area and irrigation is done to liquify the plant food (if they are not in fluid type). Throughout broadcasting over the plant, the foliage ought to not have any water as well as after application it must be watered. Rules and all neighborhood regulations regulating the storage, use and disposal of plant foods should be followed.

WEED CONTROL. Weed control involves the removal of undesirable plants in the landscape. Weeds ought to be removed from the lawn, under trees and also bushes, along the sidewalk, at the aesthetic or in the planters. If weeds are not eliminated in the lawn or under trees, they will complete for nutrients with plant thus causing nutrients shortage in the landscape dubai construction. Weeds should be gotten rid of far from the site. To avoid the weeds in the lawn lawn, pre emergency situation herbicide can be utilized or if the weeds infestation is extreme, a selective herbicide could be used. When using herbicides, ensure you the recommended kind, it is likewise good to consult the local authorities on permitted chemicals. Care needs to be required to make certain non-selective herbicide is not made use of as this would certainly result in complete plant loss. The complying with are techniques made use of in bug control. 1. Target the weeds which are problematic first. 2. Bed mulching during wintertime, fall and spring. 3. Avoid way too much fertilizing. 4. Control weeds while they are still on their young phase before they reach their maturity when they can replicate and create more weeds. 5. Normal mowing, hoeing as well as tilling to reduce the weeds in your landscape ideally, flame weeders could be used along the sidewalks, beside the structures and at the fencing download. This ought to be done very meticulously to prevent destruction of residential property. At their younger phase, plants are not eye-catching since they have not grown blossoms or have not showed their kind. Versatility is applied by transforming what had actually been developed previously in order to fit the adjustments which may occur. It can be done utilizing a dampness meter or by really feeling the dirt utilizing the hand. Use of pesticides to manage bug and diseases cause environmental contamination as well as as a result the use incorporated bug administration aids in minimizing this issue. If the problem is extreme, use of chemicals could be utilized as the last hotel. Organic control-- organic control is the usage living things to regulate parasite. Plants which repel pests can be planted near the plants prone to pest therefore protecting them from being attacked by the pests.

Interesting Techniques for Landscape Designing for Rookies

Landscapes change therefore changes in social, manufactured or all-natural environmental pressures. Social forces which trigger landscape modification come as a result of adjustment in the societal standards and their needs, for instance; some cultures in Africa take into consideration specific tree species as spiritual and also therefore their environments are well maintained, as modernization gradually deteriorates such society the previously spiritual trees are gathered for timber and also the landscape begin to change, in Europe and also northern America such social beliefs do not really exist the community major sources of landscape adjustment are manufactured and also all-natural forces, floods brought on by tropical storms damaged mayhem in some components of united states. Landscaping is a vital aspect of preserving the environment. It also increases the worth of a property because of its visual click here allure. Visually pleasing landscapes starts with an excellent style. Landscape design as well as advancement has three major roles which are: 1. For visual value 2. To reveal feature 3. Ecological function AESTHETIC DUTY OF PLANT: If you enjoy plants landscapes it is probably because you like plants as well as maybe one look outside your bed room home window produces that feel-nice sensation or perhaps enhances artistically thinking and choice production (sorry if you live in a high in the center of New York or London). Research has likewise revealed that plants aid an individual to recuperate rapidly (hortitherapy) and most standard clinical treatments actually entails spending a long time in the natural surroundings, study has actually likewise revealed that clients who have a clear view of plants will recuperate promptly compared to patients that do not see of plants, this is totally physiological yet it is worth attempting next time you are down with flu. Growing layouts and also landscapes must for that reason be performed in such a manner in which they supply a positive for those who will certainly utilize them. PRACTICAL DUTY OF PLANTS: As a landscape developer you must know the intended function as well as what the owner wants to attain the most so that you can design it to satisfy the expectations. Planting style features can be building or design. ECOLOGICAL FUNCTIONS OF PLANTS: If natural/native plants are planted, they do a large function recuperation of ecological community which was shed due to any of the three environmental forces. It is vital to make an initiative to take into consideration that any kind of native plants already on the location are not interrupted where feasible, additionally it is good to take note of any kind of new plants which had been presentedas well as have already adapted to the regional atmosphere. ECO-FRIENDLY LANDSCAPING: Developing an ecological pleasant landscape is an essential action in ensuring that the environmental contamination is reduced. Considering that ecological contamination is now a significant problem, it is contact essential to produce environmental friendly landscapes and this starts with the design. ECO FRIENDLY LANDSCAPING SUGGESTS : - Use much less pesticides - Use much less fertilizers - Use of much less water - Use other far better landscaping strategies such as nature scaping or Xeriscaping. - Appropriate option of plants Proper preparation as well as design creates extremely healthy and also appealing landscapes with less price and also less injury to the atmosphere. This could be accomplished by however not limited to gathering water, reusing yard and plant products after trimming. Layout of elements like rainfall yards and use permeable products in the garden assists in reducing water flow in the landscape thus reducing the price of seepage which enhances dampness web content in the soil readily available to plants. ENVIRONMENTALLY FRIENDLY LANDSCAPING TECHNIQUES: Natural landscaping - There are much more advantages of nature scaping over landscaping with non-native plants. The complying with are some of the benefits of doing natural landscaping Low upkeep - Plants get adapted to the atmosphere to which they grow in for this reason they require much less care compared to those plants brought from a different weather problem click here. Upkeep practices such as mowing, watering, fertilization and also parasite control are decreased. Environment preservation - All-natural plants are environment for numerous animals and also bugs. Landscape made with natural plants makes certain that the natural environments for these pets are secured. Reduction of threat of invasion by weed plants - Intrusive plants when they get into in a location they dominate the entire location thus making it hard for other plants to grow as well as could lead to termination of native plants. Ecological preservation - Low maintenance implies that use devices like lawn mowers and also pumps for irrigation is lowered thus decrease in ecological air pollution. XERISCAPING Xeriscaping is landscaping with reduced quantity of water, it is much more ideal in dry as well as semi dry areas. The option of plants is extremely important in creating such landscapes due to the fact that just plants which call for less water could be used. Benefits of Xeriscaping: 1. Low tide consumption - Xeriscaping consumes less quantity of water compared to normal landscapes 2. Reduced maintenance price - irrigation water and power, regular mowing as well as constant application of fertilizer is reduced. 3. Decrease of environmental contamination as well as waste - reduction in frequency of mowing lowers the ecological pollution triggered by lawn mowers. Planting layout functions could be architectural or engineering. If natural/native plants are planted, they do a huge role recovery of community which was lost due to any of the three environmental pressures. When creating a landscape, proper selection of the plants to boost eco-friendly performance is crucial. Plants should be designed in such a means that it draws in wild bugs such as butterflies indigenous to that location. It is important to make an effort to consider that any kind of indigenous plants already on the area are not disrupted where feasible, also it is wonderful to take note of any kind of new plants which had been introduced as well as have actually already adjusted to the local atmosphere.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree - producer B) bacteria - decomposer C) squirrel - consumer D) mushroom - detritus E) dead leaf - detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each…

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A Primary Start to Landscaping Designing

Landscapes change as a result adjustments in cultural, manufactured or natural ecological forces. Cultural forces which create landscape adjustment come as a result of adjustment in the social norms and also their demands, for instance; some cultures in Africa consider specific tree species as sacred and thus their habitats are well preserved, as innovation gradually wears down such culture the previously spiritual trees are collected for timber and the landscape begin to transform, in Europe and also northern America such social ideas do not really exist the town significant reasons for landscape change are manufactured and natural pressures, floodings triggered by typhoons damage havoc in some components of united states. Landscape design is a vital aspect of preserving the setting. It likewise enhances the worth of a home as a result of its aesthetic click here appeal. Visually pleasing landscapes starts with a great layout. Landscape layout as well as development has three major functions which are: 1. For visual worth 2. To reveal function 3. Ecological function VISUAL FUNCTION OF PLANT: If you love plants landscapes it is possibly due to the fact that you like plants as well as perhaps one look outside your room home window creates that feel-nice sensation or maybe boosts artistically believing as well as choice making (sorry if you reside in a high in the center of New York or London). Research study has also shown that plants help a client to recover swiftly (hortitherapy) and most conventional clinical treatments actually includes spending some time in the native environment, research has actually additionally shown that clients that have a clear view of plants will certainly recoup quickly than individuals who do not watch of plants, this is completely physical however it deserves trying following time you are with influenza. Planting designs and also landscapes should consequently be performed in such a method that they use a pleasurable for those that will utilize them. USEFUL DUTY OF PLANTS: Landscapes perform various features relying on how they have been developed. As a landscape designer you need to know the designated function and exactly what the proprietor intends to accomplish the most so that you can develop it to fulfill the expectations. Growing layout features could be architectural or engineering. Architectural role is the provision of personal privacy, definition of area, evaluating or mounting views. Engineering role consist of reduction of glare, control of traffic and reduction of sound. ECO-FRIENDLY ROLES OF PLANTS: If natural/native plants are grown, they do a big function recuperation of environment which was shed as a result of any one of the three environmental pressures. When designing a landscape, appropriate selection of the plants to improve ecological functionality is necessary. Plants should be designed as if it attracts wild insects such as butterflies belonging to that place. Likewise, it is very important to earn an initiative to think about that any indigenous plants currently on the place are not interrupted where feasible, also it behaves to bear in mind of any kind of brand-new plants which had actually been introduced and have actually currently adapted to the regional environment. ECO-FRIENDLY LANDSCAPE DESIGN: Producing an environmental pleasant landscape is a vital action in guaranteeing that the ecological pollution is reduced. Considering that ecological air pollution is now a significant issue, it is click here necessary to develop ecological friendly landscapes and also this starts with the style. ECO FRIENDLY LANDSCAPE DESIGN SUGGESTS : - Usage of less pesticides - Usage of less plant foods - Usage of much less water - Use other better landscaping methods such as nature scaping or Xeriscaping. - Proper selection of plants Correct preparation and also style creates very healthy and balanced and also eye-catching landscapes with less cost and much less injury to the environment. This can be attained by yet not limited to harvesting water, recycling turf and plant products after trimming. Layout of components like rain yards and also use of absorptive materials in the garden assists in slowing water flow in the landscape for this reason minimizing the rate of seepage which raises moisture material in the soil offered to plants. ENVIRONMENTALLY FRIENDLY LANDSCAPE DESIGN STRATEGIES: Natural landscape design - There are a lot more benefits of nature scaping over landscaping with non-native plants. The complying with are a few of the advantages of doing all-natural landscaping Reduced upkeep - Plants get adjusted to the setting to which they expand in for this reason they call for less care compared to those plants brought from a different weather problem hard landscaping. Maintenance practices such as mowing, watering, fertilization and insect control are lowered. Ecological community conservation - All-natural plants are environment for several animals as well as pests. Landscape made with natural plants guarantees that the natural environments for these pets are safeguarded. Decrease of threat of intrusion by weed plants - Invasive plants when they attack in a location they control the entire location therefore making it difficult for other plants to grow and also can bring about termination of native plants. Environmental preservation - Reduced upkeep suggests that use of devices like mower and pumps for irrigation is lowered therefore reduction in ecological contamination. XERISCAPING Xeriscaping is landscape design with minimized amount of water, it is better in arid and semi arid locations. The option of plants is essential in developing such landscapes due to the fact that just plants which require less water could be made use of. Benefits of Xeriscaping: 1. Reduced water usage - Xeriscaping takes in less quantity of water compared with regular landscapes 2. Low upkeep cost - irrigation water as well as power, routine mowing and regular application of plant food is decreased. 3. Reduction of ecological air pollution as well as waste - reduction in regularity of cutting minimizes the environmental air pollution brought on by mowers. Growing design features could be architectural or design. If natural/native plants are planted, they do a large duty recovery of ecosystem which was shed due to any of the three ecological pressures. When designing a landscape, correct selection of the plants to boost eco-friendly functionality is vital. Plants ought to be created in such a way that it attracts wild insects such as butterflies native to that location. It is vital to make an initiative to take into consideration that any native plants already on the location are not disrupted where possible, additionally it is great to take note of any brand-new plants which had been introduced as well as have actually currently adjusted to the local atmosphere.

Noteworthy Things To Think About Right Before Designing any Gardening Project

Landscapes change consequently adjustments in social, man-made or natural environmental forces. Cultural pressures which trigger landscape adjustment come as a result of modification in the social norms and their needs, for instance; some societies in Africa think about specific tree varieties as spiritual and also therefore their environments are well protected, as innovation gradually wears down such society the previously sacred trees are harvested for wood as well as the landscape begin to change, in Europe as well as northern The U.S.A. such cultural beliefs do not truly exist the community major reasons of landscape modification are man-made and natural pressures, floods brought on by tropical cyclones trash havoc in some components of united states. Landscape design is a vital aspect of saving the atmosphere. It likewise raises the worth of a residential property due to its visual here appeal. Aesthetically pleasing landscapes begins with a great design. Landscape design and development has 3 significant roles which are: 1. For aesthetic value 2. To reveal feature 3. Ecological function AESTHETIC ROLE OF PLANT: If you like plants landscapes it is possibly because you like plants and possibly one appearance outside your bedroom window produces that feel-nice sensation or perhaps improves artistically thinking and decision making (sorry if you stay in a high increase in the center of New York or London). Research study has also revealed that plants help a person to recuperate promptly (hortitherapy) as well as most typical clinical therapies really involves investing some time in the native environment, study has actually also revealed that individuals who have a clear view of plants will recoup promptly compared to people who do not see of plants, this is totally physiological yet it deserves attempting following time you are with flu. Growing layouts and landscapes need to consequently be done in such a manner in which they use an enjoyable for those that will use them. USEFUL ROLE OF PLANTS: As a landscape designer you should recognize the designated function and also just what the proprietor wants to attain the most so that you can design it to satisfy the expectations. Planting style functions can be building or engineering. ENVIRONMENTAL ROLES OF PLANTS: If natural/native plants are planted, they do a big function recuperation of environment which was lost due to any of the three ecological pressures. It is important to make an initiative to take into consideration that any type of indigenous plants currently on the location are not disturbed where feasible, additionally it is good to take note of any new plants which had been introducedand also have actually already adapted to the local atmosphere. ECO PLEASANT LANDSCAPE DESIGN: Producing an ecological pleasant landscape is a vital step in guaranteeing that the ecological contamination is minimized. Given that ecological air pollution is currently a major concern, it is go here required to develop ecological friendly landscapes as well as this starts with the style. ECO FRIENDLY LANDSCAPING IMPLIES : - Use much less pesticides - Use less plant foods - Usage of less water - Usage of other better landscaping techniques such as nature scaping or Xeriscaping. - Correct selection of plants Proper planning as well as design develops really healthy and balanced and also eye-catching landscapes with less price as well as less damage to the atmosphere. This could be attained by but not restricted to collecting water, reusing lawn and also plant products after pruning. Design of elements like rainfall yards as well as use permeable materials in the garden assists in slowing water flow in the landscape thus decreasing the rate of infiltration which raises dampness web content in the soil offered to plants. ENVIRONMENT-FRIENDLY LANDSCAPE DESIGN TECHNIQUES: Natural landscape design - There are a lot more advantages of nature scaping over landscaping with non-native plants. The adhering to are some of the advantages of doing natural landscaping Reduced maintenance - Plants obtain adapted to the environment to which they expand in therefore they require less treatment than those plants brought from a various climatic problem. Maintenance practices such as mowing, watering, fertilization as well as parasite control are decreased. Ecological community conservation - Natural plants are environment for several animals and also pests. Landscape made with natural plants guarantees that the natural habitats for these animals are secured. Decrease of risk of intrusion by weed plants - Intrusive plants when they get into in a location they control the whole area hence making it challenging for various other plants to expand and also can bring about termination of indigenous plants. Ecological preservation - Reduced upkeep indicates that use of makers like mower and also pumps for watering is decreased thus decrease in ecological air pollution. XERISCAPING Xeriscaping is landscape design with reduced quantity of water, it is preferable in dry as well as semi dry locations. The choice of plants is essential in making such landscapes since only plants which call for less water can be utilized. Benefits of Xeriscaping: 1. Reduced water usage - Xeriscaping consumes much less amount of water compared with typical landscapes 2. Reduced maintenance price - irrigation water and power, regular mowing as well as frequent application of fertilizer is decreased. 3. Reduction of ecological contamination as well as waste - reduction in regularity of cutting reduces the environmental pollution caused by lawn mowers. Growing style features can be architectural or engineering. If natural/native plants are planted, they do a huge role healing of environment which was shed due to any of the 3 environmental pressures. When making a landscape, appropriate choice of the plants to enhance eco-friendly performance is important. Plants should be developed in such a means that it draws in wild pests such as butterflies indigenous to that area. It is vital to make an initiative to think about that any indigenous plants currently on the area are not interrupted where possible, additionally it is wonderful to take note of any type of brand-new plants which had actually been presented and have already adapted to the neighborhood environment.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree - producer B) bacteria - decomposer C) squirrel - consumer D) mushroom - detritus E) dead leaf - detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

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The post 1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs. appeared first on Academic Writers BAy.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree - producer B) bacteria - decomposer C) squirrel - consumer D) mushroom - detritus E) dead leaf - detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

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The post 1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs. appeared first on Academic Writers BAy.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree – producer B) bacteria – decomposer C) squirrel – consumer D) mushroom – detritus E) dead leaf – detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.

1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree - producer B) bacteria - decomposer C) squirrel - consumer D) mushroom - detritus E) dead leaf - detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each…

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